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No. Your Turkic Seljuk ancestors converted to Islam in the 10th century on their own accord when they first entered the middle east, and Iranians had mass converted to Islam during the Abbasid period, not the Ummuyad period where it lasted only less than 85 years of it's existence. Do your own research before spewing such nonsense.
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Not exactly. There had been Arabs living in the Levant pure the rise of Islam in antiquity. Most of the Arabs lived in what is now Jordan, Southern Israel/Palestine, Southern and Eastern Syria, and there even had been Arabs living in Mesopotamia and Eastern Turkey as well. The Semitic peoples that lived in Jordan were mostly Arabs back in ancient times, and there is no evidence that points out that Aramaic was ever a vernacular language in Jordan and Arabia either. The Nabateans, who were an ancient Arab nomads of modern day Jordan and Southern Israel/Palestine, used Aramaic, which is descendant from imperial Aramaic brought by the Babylonians, for their administration and commercial usage which has a heavy Arabic substrate.
https://www.academia.edu/40235915/Al...rabian_Aramaic
Also, Arabs originated in the north, not the south:
https://www.theapricity.com/forum/sh...s-of-the-Arabs
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