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That's what I mention also, that the Proto-Hellenes came to Greece between 3.500 and 2.000 B.C., but they didn't have anything close to a civilization back then and of course they had no writing, thus we cannot claim that the Greek civilization started before the IndoEuropean invasions (with the notable exception of the Minoans, but Linear A has not been deciphered yet, so we cannot say whether they were full Greek) The Archaic Greeks cannot extend to a period before written records, this was the era of the Proto-Greeks and the Pelasgians, perhaps many more as well.I didn't mention Hellads at all.
They had already been interacting with the Hellads of Greece for millenia. Hellads (not to be confused with Hellenes) means original inhabitants of Greece, see also Helladic civilization).
This is bullcrap because the R1a which exists only in East Europe is the brother subclade of R1b. Thus you cannot explain how the R1a came to Greece, because it could not have arrived form Iberia for sure.
The R1 lineage arrived to the Balkans from Iberia (along with its female lineage Helena) some 5000 years ago. Originally the whole R1 lineage did not speak an ”Indo-European” language but a Basque-like non-IE language.
R1 is 1000% IndoEuropean, the discussion is closed long ago.
This R1 lineage split into Illyrians, Romans and Dorians.
You have no written evidence of this. No archaeological findings, nothing at all.
The Dorians of 5000 BC hadn’t yet split from the Illyrians and Romans, they all spoke the same Basque-like language.
No, the closest language to Tyrsenian languages is Ossetian, and it remains way too distant to be sure. The Basques were not even close.
Before they arrive to the Balkans ca 5000 BC, the whole Balkans, Greece and Anatolia (the J2 and E lineages) spoke a Greco-Anatolian language which was very similar to proto-Greek.
Nope. The "Greeks" were IndoEuropean long before the Dorians. All migration waves coming originally from Ukraine contributed to Greek in some degree.
This language contributed around 90% to Indo-European Greek. The ”Steppers” contributed ca 10% to the Greek language. The arrival of those caused the Greco-Anatolian language to split into Greek, Lydian, Phrygian etc. Anyway the Dorians were already in Greece by 2200 BC which is when the palaces in Knossos and Troy first appear and Linear A first appear (which has been deciphered as being Aeolic Greek).
All that is crap. R1 came from the East, it might have passed through Greece before arriving to Ukraine though, this is only a conjecture.
The Dorians were already of three lineages by then and spoke Greek having been interacting with the Hellads for millenia already from the time they were in the Balkans.
The Pelasgians were the Myceneans. Before the generation of Arcas, all the Arcadians were called Pelasgians. They were not just E, but also R1 and E. Only the Hellads were only J and E and spoke Greco-Anatolian from which proto-Greek evolved (with the additional contribution of the Basque like language of the R1’s)
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