IF Arabs are Semites, then aren't Iranians, pakistanis, Indians, and afghans, Indo-Europeans?

[McCloskey]

Being Indo-European racially mean you have at least some ancestry from the original Steppe invaders who carried the languages. The same for Semitic.

But as far as I know there's no consensus about who were the Proto-Semites and the Proto-IEs are almost certainly to be Steppe invaders with Northern European genetic make up.

I consider Jatts, upper caste Hindus and Afghans/Tajiks mixed Indo-Europeans racially (the same for Southern Europeans). But I don't consider Armenians and some Iranians Indo-Europeans, for example. They barely have any true Indo-European ancestry.

[Babak]

Being Indo-European racially mean you have at least some ancestry from the original Steppe invaders who carried the languages. The same for Semitic.

But as far as I know there's no consensus about who were the Proto-Semites and the Proto-IEs are almost certainly to be Steppe invaders with Northern European genetic make up.

I consider Jatts, upper caste Hindus and Afghans/Tajiks mixed Indo-Europeans racially (the same for Southern Europeans). But I don't consider Armenians and some Iranians Indo-Europeans, for example. They barely have any true Indo-European ancestry.

But being Semitic and Indo-European(In this case Iranics) arent racial identifiers. If Arabs arent Semites and Iranians arent Indo europeans, then what are they?

[Antimatter]

Linguistically, Arabs speak Arabic - An Afro-Asiatic language of the Semitic branch. Persian, Urdu and Pashto etc.... Are all Indo-European languages.

Therefore, Arabs are Afro-Asiatics (Semites) and Iranians/Pakistanis/Afghans are Indo-Europeans (Indo-Aryans).

NOTE: This is a linguistic family and also a cultural unit, to some extent. Not a race. Although genetics do seem to have been altered by successive emigrations a specific urheimat like Indo-Europeans: (24.4% of Iranians are R1, 37% of Pakistanis are R1a, 32% of Hazaras are R1b) and same for the Semites (50.6% of Iraqis are J and 8.3% under E1b1b, 43.8% of Jordanians are J and 26% are E1b1b, 46% of Lebanese are J and 16.2% are E1b1b etc...).

For example, in the case of Indo-European languages, it is the Pontic-Caspian steppes. For the Semites', it is the Levant or less likely Arabia. Autosomally though, I think Iranians are much closer to Middle Easterners. Even through paternal lineage through the Y-DNA (which only consists around 1% of your DNA).

Iran: 31.4% J2, 7% E1b1b, 11.7% G2 etc...

Jordan: 17.8% R1b

Oman: 6.7% R1a

And so this continues on to show how our world is so mixed and we are all connected.

[McCloskey]

But being Semitic and Indo-European(In this case Iranics) arent racial identifiers. If Arabs arent Semites and Iranians arent Indo europeans, then what are they?

Assmilated peoples. But there are theories which say proto-Semites or at least Proto-Afro-Asiatics originated in Arabia or Ethiopia.

Armenians and Iranians are mostly assimilated people, they hardly carry a lot of IE blood and even tradition. The Brahmins in India and some Iranic sects in Central Asia/Afghanistan remained mostly Indo-European culturally until some cennturies ago. Persians quickly integrated among Near Eastern civilizations.

[FinalFlash]

Assmilated peoples. But there are theories which say proto-Semites or at least Proto-Afro-Asiatics originated in Arabia or Ethiopia.

Armenians and Iranians are mostly assimilated people, they hardly carry a lot of IE blood and even tradition. The Brahmins in India and some Iranic sects in Central Asia/Afghanistan remained mostly Indo-European culturally until some cennturies ago. Persians quickly integrated among Near Eastern civilizations.

Persians have 20% Yamnaya admixture on the Global25 spreadsheet averages. Granted the sample sizes are limited but that statement is simply very wrong. Even Armenians score a decent amount too. To say we hardly carry a lot of IE blood is a stretch (especially for Persians).

[Smeagol]

These terms are strictly linguistic, not cultural or racial.

[Babak]

Assmilated peoples. But there are theories which say proto-Semites or at least Proto-Afro-Asiatics originated in Arabia or Ethiopia.

Armenians and Iranians are mostly assimilated people, they hardly carry a lot of IE blood and even tradition. The Brahmins in India and some Iranic sects in Central Asia/Afghanistan remained mostly Indo-European culturally until some cennturies ago. Persians quickly integrated among Near Eastern civilizations.

That makes no sense. Most people have been assimilated into various societies and we cant just label them "Assimilated peoples" wtf? If this is the case, then these people shouldnt be identified with any group at all.

[McCloskey]

Persians have 20% Yamnaya admixture on the Global25 spreadsheet averages. Granted the sample sizes are limited but that statement is simply very wrong. Even Armenians score a decent amount too. To say we hardly carry a lot of IE blood is a stretch (especially for Persians).

You guys are almost fully Near Easterners/West Asians. Pashtuns, Jatts and other East Iranic and Indic groups are actually ''mixed race''. Armenians and Persians are just MENAs who speak Indo-European.

[Babak]

These terms are strictly linguistic, not cultural or racial.

Yes thats what im saying.

[Mingle]

Assmilated peoples. But there are theories which say proto-Semites or at least Proto-Afro-Asiatics originated in Arabia or Ethiopia.

Proto-Afro-Asiatics originated in Ethiopia. Proto-Semites originated in the Levant.

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