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Thread: IF Arabs are Semites, then aren't Iranians, pakistanis, Indians, and afghans, Indo-Europeans?

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    Very nice question, of course that Most of Europeans (even before modern migrations) are barbarians from Asia namely Indo-Europeans.

    R1 people are all related to each other, Indian R1, Pakistani R1 etc... so Called Aryan Barbarians.

    The only true Europeans are I2, J2, G2 and E1b aka Romans

    Semites are all J1 while those Askhenazi etc.. those aren't even Jews, those are Khazars.

    Jews are meaninglessly few, but they are supported by Aryan Horde who will join them any time soon.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Babak View Post
    But thats not how it works. You might as well call khazakhs IES too since they score a fair amount of steppe.
    They are ''mixed race'' imo. But in their case they have been Turkified. Tajiks, on the other hand, still score loads of Steppe and are IE speaking. So they qualify as IE to me.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Proto-Afro-Asiatics originated in Ethiopia. Proto-Semites originated in the Levant.

    Sent from my SM-G925T using Tapatalk
    I have seen people link it's origin to the Levant and the fertile crescent rather than Africa. They suggest a migration back into Africa from the middle east during the Neolithic. I'm pretty sure the ancient Egyptian samples showed admixture linked to Neolithic farmers from the near east, though ancient Egyptian was just one branch of Afro-Asiatic
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    There's a simple solution to that.

    If a people has a component of the language of the proto people,they are the heirs of the proto people.(turks,iranian,slavs)

    If a people does not have the genetic component of the proto people of the language they speak, they are assimilated(full blood afro american,sardinian,Pontic greeks and turks)

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    Quote Originally Posted by McCloskey View Post
    They are ''mixed race'' imo. But in their case they have been Turkified. Tajiks, on the other hand, still score loads of Steppe and are IE speaking. So they qualify as IE to me.
    But ethnic turks(Northeastern turks for example) are so called "mixed race" too. Are they not turks? They barely have central asian ancestry but yet proudly identify as Turkic.

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    Quote Originally Posted by McCloskey View Post
    You guys are almost fully Near Easterners/West Asians. Pashtuns, Jatts and other East Iranic and Indic groups are actually ''mixed race''. Armenians and Persians are just MENAs who speak Indo-European.
    Armenians aren't "MENAS" who speak a European language. Our Steppe admixture aside, Armenians also score a very large amount of Barcin_N which is Neolithic Anatolian. This is a European component which peaks in Sardinians as well as other Italic and Hellenic peoples. I seriously think you're misinformed or simply have very little idea about our genetics or the genetics of people in West Asia altogether.

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    Quote Originally Posted by NarLFC View Post
    Armenians aren't "MENAS" who speak a European language. Our Steppe admixture aside, Armenians also score a very large amount of Barcin_N which is Neolithic Anatolian. This is a European component which peaks in Sardinians as well as other Italic and Hellenic peoples. I seriously think you're misinformed or simply have very little idea about our genetics or the genetics of people in West Asia altogether.
    Yea he doesnt understand that Indo-European is simy a linguistic identifier, not a racial one.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Babak View Post
    But ethnic turks(Northeastern turks for example) are so called "mixed race" too. Are they not turks? They barely have central asian ancestry but yet proudly identify as Turkic.
    Yeah, most Turks from Anatolia are assimilated Anatolians imo. If Greece had won the war in 1919-1922 a lot of Turks would start to identify as Greeks or whatever they were before Turkish raids into Anatolia. In the case of Persians it's more difficult, because the linguistic assimilation is very ancient and Persians are very proud of their language.

    I think ancient Persians, at least the aristocracy, was Northern European in genetics and appearence.

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    Quote Originally Posted by NarLFC View Post
    Armenians aren't "MENAS" who speak a European language. Our Steppe admixture aside, Armenians also score a very large amount of Barcin_N which is Neolithic Anatolian. This is a European component which peaks in Sardinians as well as other Italic and Hellenic peoples. I seriously think you're misinformed or simply have very little idea about our genetics or the genetics of people in West Asia altogether.
    European =/= Indo-European. Sardinians are assimilated Neolithics.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Babak View Post
    Yea he doesnt understand that Indo-European is simy a linguistic identifier, not a racial one.
    That's true. But sometimes it's used interchangeably here with Yamnaya or Steppe. Which in your case(Iranians), 1/5 of your ancestry is basically Steppe according to Global25. However, the sample sizes are limited on their spreadsheet so it might be prone to a little change.

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