Why did Central Asian Turks settle in Anatolia and why did they mix with the natives

[Hrvoje Vukčić Hrvatinić]

Yea thats why J2 is found even among Jews . Whether you descended from Semites 10,000 years ago or yesterday, it is a Semitic haplgroup, it suplanted the native R1b, G and R1a lines in Iran. Just because someone is haplogroup I1 or 2 doesn't make them any more different, they have the same lineage.

Just cut the crap. R1a exists among Jews it doesn't make it originally semitic. All groups are mixed including Jews Semites didn't exist 10 000 years ago braindead Yank.
J2 is CHG line and native to western Asia. Turks have mostly native Anatolian/Caucasian J2, some minor lines are of Balkan/Greek origin and some may have arrived with Oghuz Turks.

It depends on subclades.

I1 and I2 separated tens of thousands years ago. Even different clades of I2 aren't closely related not to mention I1.
Your type of I2 is totally different than slavic type of I2 and they had different migration paths and ethnogenesis.

Wasting time here, it's clear you're too limited even to grasp basic haplogroup knowledge.

[Borealis]

bump

[Borealis]

Why the fuck do you care about smth which is not your business that much? We felt like to be settled in Anatolia and we did. So?

North Indians and Turks share a common ancestor.

[itilvolga]

North Indians and Turks share a common ancestor.

Listen. I am aware what you are trying to do so don’t waste your weak brain cells for it.

[Borealis]

Listen. I am aware what you are trying to do so don’t waste your weak brain cells for it.

you probably dont