Fulani have Iberian ancestry

[Zoro]

I think North Africans don't have European ancestry, North Africans have shared Neolithic Anatolian farmers history which isn't necessarily 'European'.

You get the jackpot. The people who said Spain and N. Africa share some ancestry are also kind of correct.

People here need to wake up and realize that DNA tests don't tell you which direction the genes flowed. They just tell you that you share some ancestry with someone. Is it from an ancestor 1000 years ago, 10,000 years ago, or 100,000 years ago?? The test can't answer this question.

Kurds score Iberian for example. Is it because Iberians were in Kurdistan?? NO. Is it because Kurds were in Iberia?? NO again.

Is it because Kurds & Iberians share 9000 year old Anatolian Farmer Ancestry ?? YES YES. But the DNA test did not say which one was the real answer.

E. Africans also share Neolithic Farmer ancestry with Europeans and W. Asians

Same thing with the Mongolian lady who took the Heritage DNA test. The test showed she had alot of C. Asia ancestry. C. Asia in My Heritage DNA map (check the video) includes Iran, Kurdistan, Caucasus and a bunch of C. Asian countries. Is it because all those countries were in Mongolia? No. It's because

[Adamm]

north moroccans with r1b disagree with you ...I often see maghrebis imposing their cultural patriarchal view on Genetics saying things like you're european because you're r1b/ arab because J1 or "it's through a maternal ancestor"

I'm talking about the average autosomalic genetic make up of North Africans (Moroccans/Algerians), that autosomalic inheritance of European DNA is imo maternal and not paternal.

[Damião de Góis]

Any chance of seeing this demonstrated with k13 or k15 or even with haplogroup frequencies?

Can't see anything on G25:

Target: Fulani
Distance: 1.5662% / 0.01566153
41.4 Berber_MAR_TIZ
28.6 Mandenka
21.8 Gambian
4.2 Bulala
2.4 Mada
1.2 Saharawi
0.4 Somali

[dydyflorent36]

I don't think so. It's impossible them to have direct Iberian ancestry, they may have it through North African(Berber) ancestry. Because North Africans have at least 20% European admixture. I really would like to see their Dodecad k12b results.

Also they look full African, I see no Caucasoid on them.

Then i guess you've never met nor seen a true Fulani ever. Furthermore there was a small community of Iberian Jews in the Songhai Empire. https://shavei.org/timbuktu-mali/

Fulani singer from Cameroon



Fulani writer from Cameroon



Fulani representative for Fulanis in Cameroon



Fulani women from Northern Cameroon



Fulani women from Northern Nigeria



Rural Fulani women Central Africa



Elderly Fulani woman from Benin





Sent from my SM-G770F using Tapatalk

[Gota_type_]

If your take is true that would mean that Iberian haplogroups pre-Indo European should be prominent in North Africa, what are those haplogroup markers if I may ask?

It is a well known fact that BERBERS are a mix of old European stock that lived in prehistoric Europe (not only in Iberia but in other places) and other inputs that are from the last 3000-4000 years. The berbers at some point in History moved to North-Africa. That is why maternal halogroups like V (which are hunter-gatherer and have their origin in "Spain") are massive in the Berbers (in fact, it is north Spaniards from Cantabria, Sami, and Berbers the ones with the highest number of V halopgroup in the world). The berbers also have other old European halogroups (I have read it but I don´t want to look for it right now, you can search it). In any case, most north-africans score a 20-25% of Iberian. Why "iberian"? Because in prehistoric times other groups (like the berbers) from Iberia went to live to NorthAfrica (for example, the iberomaurissian culture).

And it is obvious that some of that "Iberian" is the same issue with the "North African" in Spain. It does not mean interchange of genes but sharing common ancestry. Since Spain is in one corner of Europe we have only received DNA basically from the Pirineos, that is why we maintain older components that other more "central" countries that have received more different inputs from more different people, tribes or cultures. That is why someone from Germany can´t score a 4% NorthAfrican (because it is more diluted in their gene pool than in Spain which is less diluted). And that is the reason why here in the NW of Spain, in the corner, when there were ZERO northafricans ever we get the highest NorthAfrican component in Spain (much higher than in Andalucía, which is in the deep south). Why? Because Galicia is the most endogamic región of Spain and thus we conserve the old genetic input much better than other regions that were less endogamic than us. But, it is not NA, it is just old caucasoid common stock that all Europeans and Northafricans share. Yes, even in the north of Sweden people get 0.1 northafrican or subsaharian (I have seen them). The reason is that in more isolated áreas the old components are better conserved.

[Gota_type_]

You get the jackpot. The people who said Spain and N. Africa share some ancestry are also kind of correct.

People here need to wake up and realize that DNA tests don't tell you which direction the genes flowed. They just tell you that you share some ancestry with someone. Is it from an ancestor 1000 years ago, 10,000 years ago, or 100,000 years ago?? The test can't answer this question.

Kurds score Iberian for example. Is it because Iberians were in Kurdistan?? NO. Is it because Kurds were in Iberia?? NO again.

Is it because Kurds & Iberians share 9000 year old Anatolian Farmer Ancestry ?? YES YES. But the DNA test did not say which one was the real answer.

E. Africans also share Neolithic Farmer ancestry with Europeans and W. Asians

Same thing with the Mongolian lady who took the Heritage DNA test. The test showed she had alot of C. Asia ancestry. C. Asia in My Heritage DNA map (check the video) includes Iran, Kurdistan, Caucasus and a bunch of C. Asian countries. Is it because all those countries were in Mongolia? No. It's because

Correct. It is a matter of labels, mostly. It is just common ancestry between different caucasoid populations. But in the case of NorthAfrica they ALSO get Iberian DNA because prehistoric iberians went to live to NorthAfrica (like iberomaurissian culture and others). Even berbers have different halopgroups that are originated in Europe. The difference is that Berbers and NorthAfricans also have many other non European components.

To score a 5-8% of NorthAfrican DNA in today´s Spaniards would mean that 10.000 years ago, 50% of the population (or more) was "NorthAfrican" and reality means that we have ZERO material culture or evidences of the existence of NorthAfricans living in Spain (specially in the North) ever. There are zero proofs. And our halogroups are 99% European. So, the so called NorthAfrican in Spain is ZERO. But people get mistaken because we have like a 10% of our population that look like mongrels and too dark or semitic types. But these cases are more related with phoenicians, some muslims that were never expelled (99% of them were expelled but I can imagine a certain number that remained) or even the 40.000 moroccoans that Franco took to Spain and they raped many Spanish women (and when Franco realized this, he took them out of Spain, and in many cases the Nationals executed the moroccoan that was raping a Spanish woman, even that they were in the same band of the Civil War).

But, the rest of Spaniards (90%) look totally European. So, the minimal number of mongrels that we have are for other reasons different than what people think. And even with this, the amount of non-European DNA is higher in Scandinavia than in Spain (they have a lot of asian blood, which is worst since it is a different race than caucasoids).

[XenophobicPrussian]

Did you know that Mongolian people get Finnish DNA?



Can you tell me when where the Finns in Mongolia?? Can you tell me how is it posible that people in Spain (and the rest of Europe since ALL Europeans get a 0.5-1% of NorthAfrican DNA in Eurogenes) get as high as a 6-7% of NA DNA when there is no prehistoric or historic episode where "millions" of northafricans populated this place? Why it is here in the NW where the moros were NEVER, that we have much higher NA than in Andalucía?? It is the same reason why mongols get Finnish DNA, it is the CONTRARY, Finnish get Mongol DNA and NorthAfricans get old prehistoric iberian DNA BUT someone has just labeled some old Euro DNA segments as NorthAfrican, when in reality they are old Euro DNA segments. There is zero evidence of NA here either in Prehistoric or HIstoric times but it is known that Iberians were in NA.

But as you have a personal agenda against us you can still believe in retard conclussions. But remember to realice that Mongolians are part Finnish then.
And don´t use Spaniard "risitas" to laugh about what other Spanish says.

Not a bad point tbh, but, first of all, DNA testing companies use nothing like the tools and methods that actual scientific DNA researchers use, and they aren't using actual ancient DNA, but taking "peak" components from populations and using them as population proxies, which when done well can be accurate, other times not so much. DNA testing companies are amateurs by comparison. Secondly, it doesn't necessarily have to mean literally fucking Finnish people, the model is picking the closest thing available to it. So yes, Mongolians can very well indeed be 5% "Finnish-like". Mongolians do indeed have European admixture from various steppe migrations(shown in Y-DNA as well), and Finns have some of the highest steppe admixture in Europe. Why did the model pick Finnish out of all European groups? It really doesn't matter, the model is still doing its job finding the European admixture, but another reason can be a lot of late steppe groups in the southern Urals were actually very specifically Finnish like(Mezhovskaya for example), high CWC/Globular Amphora, but with a tinge of Mongoloid, like 5-15%, whoever they were(proto-Finno Ugric maybe), it's entirely feasible Mongols have admixture from them outside the initial Afanasievo/Andronovo/etc steppe migrants.

The paper threw out a bunch of very solid theories as to why the NW has the most North African admixture btw, one being it had the most precious metal ore mines during the Roman period, so naturally it attracted the most migrants/Roman slaves. It could just be very old North African HG admixture(doesn't make it any less North African btw) who simply followed the possibly less populated west coast rather than east, although I do believe the paper specifically dated the point of admixture to a much later date. Probably also why the NW of Iberia has the most Germanic admixture, they went to the best land.

Solutreans came from Spain? Yes.
Chachapoyas came from SPain? Yes.
the amount of non-European DNA is higher in Scandinavia than in Spain (they have a lot of asian blood, which is worst since it is a different race than caucasoids)

yikes

[XenophobicPrussian]

You get the jackpot. The people who said Spain and N. Africa share some ancestry are also kind of correct.

People here need to wake up and realize that DNA tests don't tell you which direction the genes flowed. They just tell you that you share some ancestry with someone. Is it from an ancestor 1000 years ago, 10,000 years ago, or 100,000 years ago?? The test can't answer this question.

Kurds score Iberian for example. Is it because Iberians were in Kurdistan?? NO. Is it because Kurds were in Iberia?? NO again.

Is it because Kurds & Iberians share 9000 year old Anatolian Farmer Ancestry ?? YES YES. But the DNA test did not say which one was the real answer.

E. Africans also share Neolithic Farmer ancestry with Europeans and W. Asians

Same thing with the Mongolian lady who took the Heritage DNA test. The test showed she had alot of C. Asia ancestry. C. Asia in My Heritage DNA map (check the video) includes Iran, Kurdistan, Caucasus and a bunch of C. Asian countries. Is it because all those countries were in Mongolia? No. It's because

Kurds don't score Iberian. You're using shitty capitalist American DNA companies designed for American Euromutts and African Americans as the gold standard for autosomal DNA testing. Meanwhile, something like qpADM or even G25 can single out even the closest of genetic ancestry like Slavic vs Germanic or Germanic vs Celtic without noisey results.

[Gota_type_]

Not a bad point tbh, but, first of all, DNA testing companies use nothing like the tools and methods that actual scientific DNA researchers use, and they aren't using actual ancient DNA, but taking "peak" components from populations and using them as population proxies, which when done well can be accurate, other times not so much. DNA testing companies are amateurs by comparison. Secondly, it doesn't necessarily have to mean literally fucking Finnish people, the model is picking the closest thing available to it. So yes, Mongolians can very well indeed be 5% "Finnish-like". Mongolians do indeed have European admixture from various steppe migrations(shown in Y-DNA as well), and Finns have some of the highest steppe admixture in Europe. Why did the model pick Finnish out of all European groups? It really doesn't matter, the model is still doing its job finding the European admixture, but another reason can be a lot of late steppe groups in the southern Urals were actually very specifically Finnish like(Mezhovskaya for example), high CWC/Globular Amphora, but with a tinge of Mongoloid, like 5-15%, whoever they were(proto-Finno Ugric maybe), it's entirely feasible Mongols have admixture from them outside the initial Afanasievo/Andronovo/etc steppe migrants.

The paper threw out a bunch of very solid theories as to why the NW has the most North African admixture btw, one being it had the most precious metal ore mines during the Roman period, so naturally it attracted the most migrants/Roman slaves. It could just be very old North African HG admixture(doesn't make it any less North African btw) who simply followed the possibly less populated west coast rather than east, although I do believe the paper specifically dated the point of admixture to a much later date. Probably also why the NW of Iberia has the most Germanic admixture, they went to the best land.


yikes

So, a mongolian can get "Finnish" as a result and it will be discussed about if it is just a matter of labels or an indirect source of population or just common ancient ancestry, BUT if in Spain we get a 5% of North African is because of the "mines" of the Roma period or whatever other posible invented idea that suits a purpose...

I put the video of the Mongolian that get Finnish DNA to show you that it is only a matter of labels. Someone labeled as "Finnish" some anciend DNA segments, and anyone that have those ancient DNA segments will be considered partly Finnish. The same for the NA in Spain. someone labeled some segments as "North African" and then if someone do a DNA test and get those segments he will be classified as part NorthAfrican. Just because a matter of labels.

If we consider material culture, History, Archaegology and many other references we will conclude that it is absolutely IMPOSIBLE that millions (or hundred of thousands 10.000 years ago) of northafricans lived in Iberia (to the point that 10.000 years later we still get a 5% of NA despite the many diffferent groups that came later and altered our genetic pool). There is no way that this has been the case. It is imposible that all of Spain was full of NorthAfricans since it is obvious that we could have found any kind of archaelogic evidence for this stupidity and there is NOTHING at all in any part of Spain.

And why the NW have the highest NA and not Andalucía which is closer to NA?? You say "because of the mines of the Roman Empire". Again, trying to push your distorted agenda. There were zero mines in those times here. Maybe you are refering to "Las Médulas" which are closer, in Leon, which were the largest mine in Hispania. And it would be extremely stupid to take northafricans 1000 kms to work in the mines in NW Spain when we had lots of people here that were subjects of the Roman Empire (even the Cantabrians, which were the last to be conquered and were enslaved could have worked in these mines but hey a prussian says that it is more convenient to say that they took NorthAfricans 1000 kms away from here.

But, hey, they are not galicians and have a lesser % of NA. So, how can we Galicians score that high supposed "NA" and Andalucia quite less?? Because we are the most isolated part of Spain, the most "endogamic" and thus we conserve the old components better. It is not our problem if some retard labels some of our ancient DNA components as "NA" (we should know the name of thos retards and we will probably see some arab, or some retard with an agenda).

Can you tell me how the Germans (prussians) get as an average of 0.39 AMERINDIAN and 0.37 NorthEast African and 0.17% Subsaharan in Eurogenes K13? Are you part Bolivian and part Somali? Or is it just because of "labels"?
https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets...QG0/edit#gid=0


When you can show us any archaelogical, historic, or scientific paper that states that Iberia was full of Northafricans 6000 or 10000 years ago, I will believe you. But since you will find ZERO evidences, you should try not to sell fake ideas. If you see some Spaniards (let´s say, a 10%) that look extremeMed or partly semitic, Ok, put them as non-whites (I also do it and they are my countrymen). But, 90% of the rest are White as any other European (yes, even convenctional Med Spaniards). Because if you say that Med Spaniards are non-White then you should say the same for Orlando Bloom types or Haakon of Norway and many other northeuropeans that look Med.

[Gota_type_]

I forgot. Another great evidence that would indicate that the "NA" component in Spain is a matter of labels (like the Finnish component in Mongolians) is because our halopgroups (paternal and maternal) are totally European (and the tiny amount of non-European halopgroups are in the same averages than in other European country). At the same time you can find many European halopgroups (that are common in Spain) in NorthAfrica, even those halopgroups that are distinctly "Spanish" like "V" (which peaks in berebers in NA), showing that the only connection was people from Iberia emmigrating to NorthAfrica (and not the reversal). So, how is it posible that 100% of Spaniards get "NA" (just in Eurogenes K15 or K36 and not in 23andme, I have 0.00% NorthAfrican in 23andme, like most Spaniards) but 99.99% of our halopgroups are like other European countries? It seems ridiculous. Why other European countries score less "NA"? Because it was us Iberian that went to NorthAfrica and not the Germans, so if someone labels some DNA segments as "NorthAfrican" is because it was Iberians that went to NorthAfrica and not the Germans.