Sorbs Ydna

[Peterski]

Here are some areas with high R1a %, based mainly on samples from FTDNA projects:

Brandenburg an der Havel (FTDNA projects) ----- 50% R1a (n=14)
Chemnitz (FTDNA projects) ------------------------ 40% R1a (n=10)
Rostock (genetic studies) -------------------------- 32% R1a (n=96)

For comparison, average for some regions:

Mecklenburg-Vorpommern (FTDNA projects) ----- 26% R1a (n=31)
Sachsen-Anhalt (FTDNA projects) ----------------- 18% R1a (n=34)

=====

Map with R1a frequencies (combined data from publications and from FTDNA projects):

[Lucas]

Here are some areas with high R1a %, based mainly on samples from FTDNA projects:

Brandenburg an der Havel (FTDNA projects) ----- 50% R1a (n=14)
Chemnitz (FTDNA projects) ------------------------ 40% R1a (n=10)
Rostock (genetic studies) -------------------------- 32% R1a (n=96)

For comparison, average for some regions:

Mecklenburg-Vorpommern (FTDNA projects) ----- 26% R1a (n=31)
Sachsen-Anhalt (FTDNA projects) ----------------- 18% R1a (n=34)

=====

Map with R1a frequencies (combined data from publications and from FTDNA projects):

But if we assume that let's say in `1700 about 50% of Mecklemburgians were of recent Saxon extraction (because of 50-65% or more, demographic losses) , we can assume that before 1618 R1a frequency could be about 50-60% (looking at modern Rostock ad central Mecklemburg values).

Such modern frequencies could be attained considering 30years war demographic declain. And knowing German will to colonize every land east of them it would be impoosible to think they didn't colonize Mecklemburg again. And let it to grow up again just using their survivor population. And we have common northern Lower Saxon dialect proof which I presented earlier.

[Ülev]

what if Rethel tested all his German family and therefore we have so high R1a?

[Ayetooey]

what if Rethel tested all his German family and therefore we have o high R1a?

Even Rethels female family are R1a.

[Lucas]

Even Rethels female family are R1a.

Even dogs and cats.

[Peterski]

But if we assume that let's say in `1700 about 50% of Mecklemburgians were of recent Saxon extraction (because of 50-65% or more, demographic losses) , we can assume that before 1618 R1a frequency could be about 50-60% (looking at modern Rostock ad central Mecklemburg values).

Such modern frequencies could be attained considering 30years war demographic declain. And knowing German will to colonize every land east of them it would be impoosible to think they didn't colonize Mecklemburg again. And let it to grow up again just using their survivor population. And we have common northern Lower Saxon dialect proof which I presented earlier.

Here are two interesting maps from Bazyli's articles (where Slavic languages were spoken until the 1500s-1600s):

Mecklenburg: https://i.imgur.com/e4hfm2Q.png



^^^
That includes Wendland: http://www.rundlingsverein.de/Fotos/Karte-Wendland.jpg



Rugen: https://i.imgur.com/ot2JYMU.png



Source: http://www.historycy.org/index.php?showtopic=68470&st=0

[MagnusDark]

But if we assume that let's say in `1700 about 50% of Mecklemburgians were of recent Saxon extraction (because of 50-65% or more, demographic losses) , we can assume that before 1618 R1a frequency could be about 50-60% (looking at modern Rostock ad central Mecklemburg values).

Such modern frequencies could be attained considering 30years war demographic declain. And knowing German will to colonize every land east of them it would be impoosible to think they didn't colonize Mecklemburg again. And let it to grow up again just using their survivor population. And we have common northern Lower Saxon dialect proof which I presented earlier.

Or the lower Saxons brought some more R1a with them that was assimilated much earlier than these events when the Wends first arrived, assuming this is the only scenario for their acquisition of R1a. I highly doubt all their R1a is recent as Litvinski would have people believe. The Wends were going through numerous assimilation tactics from their very arrival well over a millennia ago. Not impossible to think some Germanized R1a folk came with those re-settlements. Also, if it was a regrowth within only that time from the leftovers, there should be closer TMRCA within German/Sorb R1a. But there isn't. Unless of course these values are of only the Slavic speaking communities there and not East Germans themselves.

Germans have alot of basal clades under M458, which likely means they were assimilated early on when the Wends arrived and not in the last 4-500 years which should show closer matches with Poles/Sorbs if that were the case. I have a few L1029 matches for instance with ancestry from West, Central and South Germany.

[Norb]

But if we assume that let's say in `1700 about 50% of Mecklemburgians were of recent Saxon extraction (because of 50-65% or more, demographic losses) , we can assume that before 1618 R1a frequency could be about 50-60% (looking at modern Rostock ad central Mecklemburg values).

Such modern frequencies could be attained considering 30years war demographic declain. And knowing German will to colonize every land east of them it would be impoosible to think they didn't colonize Mecklemburg again. And let it to grow up again just using their survivor population. And we have common northern Lower Saxon dialect proof which I presented earlier.

don't forget the 10 million German males that were killed from 1939 to 1946

[Lucas]

Or the lower Saxons brought some more R1a with them that was assimilated much earlier than these events when the Wends first arrived, assuming this is the only scenario for their acquisition of R1a. I highly doubt all their R1a is recent as Litvinski would have people believe. The Wends were going through numerous assimilation tactics from their very arrival well over a millennia ago. Not impossible to think some Germanized R1a folk came with those re-settlements. Also, if it was a regrowth within only that time from the leftovers, there should be closer TMRCA within German/Sorb R1a. But there isn't. Unless of course these values are of only the Slavic speaking communities there and not East Germans themselves.

Germans have alot of basal clades under M458, which likely means they were assimilated early on when the Wends arrived and not in the last 4-500 years which should show closer matches with Poles/Sorbs if that were the case. I have a few L1029 matches for instance with ancestry from West, Central and South Germany.

Here is Y-DNa composition in Lower Saxony (made by Robert Gabel from German DNA Project). There are traces of Slavic Y-DNA...

[MagnusDark]

No evidence that it is Slavic Y-DNA based on those graphs.

It could be Germanic R1a-Z284 and R1a-CTS4385.

Such low frequency of R1a is typical for Western Europe:

England - 4,5% R1a
Flanders - 4,3% R1a
Brabant - 4,0% R1a
Wallonia - 4,0% R1a
Ireland - 2,5% R1a
Wales - 1,0% R1a

Did you bother reading the graph? it clearly shows what clades they have, M458/Z280/M198.

Also doesn't matter if it was originally Proto-Slavic or not. My point was those who repopulated NE Germany could have been earlier assimilated Wends that migrated there as Germans from Saxony.

I can't comment on Z280 or L260 in East Germans, but for L1029 they have alot of basal variety of L1029 with distant TMRCA between 1000 or more years. Which doesn't support your position that its recent 400-500 years.