The Pelasgians

[Tauromachos]

Probably proto Greek or Aegean people with higher neolithic and less northshifted genetics such as the Minoans.

Its also possible that the native Hunter Gatherers living in Mainland Greece would have been known as Pelasgians

[wvwvw]

But the natives of Greece were definitely non-indo-European most likely they were a E1b1b1a people who spoke some ancient Afro-Asiatic language.

DNA papers show that the main northern Africa DNA linage M1(YAP) evolved in Asia and there was a back migration to Egypt and Greece.

Migrations from north to south and south to north occurred within the period of RECORDED HISTORY. Thus the people who founded Egyptian Civilisation were clearly the M1 from Asia who were there FIRST.

They did not abandon their own Asian language to start speaking an African language (Ancient Egyptian). The M168 Asiatic linage from which M1/YAP is derived split from the M42-94-139 African linage about 56-48,000 years ago. M42-94-139 split from M91 in Africa about 77-66,000 years ago.

From this division it can easily be seen that the M1 language is a descendent of the original African language as are all Asiatic languages.

Now since the M1 invented ideas, concepts, structures and machines that had never be seen before, such as farming and domestication of animals, they were the ones who gave them their names and the native African lineages copied those name in their languages. While Egyptian and Greek has written records going back 6000 years there is no written record of any other Africa langue going back more than about 300 years.

At the same time as M1 split from M168, M89 also split from M168 and it isfrom M89 that all European and Asiatic languages derived from.

All so-called Semitic languages derive from M1 because M1 mutated into M35 in Palestine about 28-24,000 years ago and merged with the M89 derived lineages which had evolved in Mesopotamia and the Caucuses.

From this evidence it is pretty obvious to deduce that the common African language originated from the back migration of M1 into Africa and the so-called Semitic language originated from the migration of the M35 M1 sub-lineage into Palestine and the middle east subsuming the M89 derived population.

E-M78 is a lineage which is descended from M168 from which all Asians, Europeans and Native Americans are descended from therefore this lineage should have European features and cranial type.

The people of north Africa were coast dwellers and naturally light skinned compared to southern Africans.

The D-M174 haplogroup derivative of M1 YAP is found only in Japan and is why Japanese men have square faces rather than round faces like the Chinese.By virtue of is appearance in 40% of the population of Japan as D-M174 and the fact that Japanese have fairer and curlier hair and skin and more European looking facial shapes especially the men when compared to Chinese it can be concluded that the YAP insertion of which E-M35 is part of is a DNA linage which through climatic conditions in the coastal areas and open plains where it is found evolved to be white with gracile features best suited for swimming in the sea and a diet of fish.

The only DNA lineages whose descendents never migrated out of Africa are A-M91 and B-M60. These two haplogroups A and B are minority lineages in Africa and it is these lineages which are most likely responsible for non-Caucasian cranial types. These linages are only dominant in south central equatorial Africa, southern Africa and Sudan and Ethiopia.

10,000 years ago one group of Pelasgians (YAP linage) migrated across the Mediterranean coastline to Cyprus and Greece and spread agriculture where they went and the other founded the Egyptian civilisation.

5000 years ago the Pelasgians and one group of J2 combined forces and later on with R1b, to form the Minoan Greek civilisation and which spread the Greek language to the Italo-Celts in the north who spoke still a Basque-like non-IE language. A part of those Italo-celts intermixed with the Pelasgians to become the Hellenes.

The Semitic languages evolved from the J-M267 linage and it was this linage who became the ancient Egyptians, Babylonians and Palestinians 20,000 years ago when they mixed with the northern African E-M35 parent linage that was evolved 30,000 years ago.

[wvwvw]

Both J2 and E-M78 are not associated with indo-European languages wtf are you talking about? You’re making it seem like Greece was the birth place of Indo-European languages.

Greek is both the parent of Proto-Indo-European and Proto-Messo-Asiatic languages.

The Proto-Indo-Europeans were the Minoan Greeks. They should be referred by that name or as Hellads.

The Minoan controlled the seas and thus controlled trade and that is what Salon's reference to Atlantis is all about.

The common European language was always Greek and this spread radially outwards from Greece as a result of Greek colonisation from Minoan times with the spread of Agriculture. This has already been proven by Grimm's Law since Greek is the only Indo-European language that contains the Voice Aspirated labials, dentals and velars in the form of beta, delta and gamma from which the consonants in al @Indo-European languages evolved. Slavs and Germanics were not speaking an Indo-European language until Roman times.

The arrival of the Indus civilisation corresponds to the time of the Minoans and to the time of the evolution of the M102 linage in Greece. That is who the Indians worship as their earliest Gods the Minoan Greeks.

The only lineages that are common to ALL IE speakers are J2 and E. The Greeks controlled all trade in the Mediterranean, Europe and Asia-Minor since Minoan times. That's at least 5000 years ago.

The Ursula marker is also common to all Europeans, but not a trace of the Phoenician Jasmin marker exists in Germans or Slavs. This shows that the IE language was spread by Greeks, and the artifacts all over Europe and the world show Greek material culture.

[wvwvw]

E-V13 ?

Pelasgians in the time of Pelasgus, after whom they were named, were of mixed lineages, R1b and Ev13 included.

[Daos777]

Indo-European or the common European language, evolved from several roots and over the millennia these languages merged by common interaction due to trade, conquest and population migration.

The Greek pattern consists of the M35/Eu4, M172/Eu9 and M173/Eu18 markers in equal proportions, 1/3:1/3:1/3 and is found right across the Mediterranean, which suggests two waves of colonisation one from Anatolia starting in 20,000 BC and another starting in 10,000 BC from the Middle East. The intermixing of the two populations formed the Indo-European speaking Palasgians by 5000 BC and brought with them the basis of Agriculture.

The Greco-Phoenicans (a more proper term) were far older than the Sumerians. The M172 and M35 were the originators of Agriculture and settled Greece and Mesopotamia long before the Summerian Civilisation. This is a known Archeological fact.

The main E found today in Greece and Europe is E-M78.
To my knowledge. The only place ancient E-M78 was found is in Morocco around 15,000 years ago attributed to the Iberomaurusian culture, with one skeleton bearing the direct parent lineage to E-V13. This is 100 % where E-V13 comes from. There have been ZERO ancient samples of it in the Levant. And this subclade doesn’t directly have anything to do with the development of farming as that is attributed to Levantine E which is E-Z827 and it’s subclades it’s a little younger and comes from the Natufian influence (who probably also spoke proto- Indo-European according to you). Until there are ancient samples of E-M78 in Anatolia or Levant E-Z827 is the only E that could have entered through the Levant. But it is almost non existent in today’s Greeks. So how you can trace modern or ancient Greek ancestry to this subclade of E when it has nothing to do with it I don’t know. J2 is also not associated with the advent of farming.

E-M78 was most likely in Greece since the Mesolithic. Again there is 0 chance they spoke anything related to what we today consider Indo-European. Also 0 chance they Spoke anything similar to the J2 or E-Z827 of the levant. They(M78) might have contributed to the Greek language but like I said. ~ 50 percent of Greek is of non Indo-European origin. Which makes sense due to its “Greco-Phoenician”, also known as only Phoenician minus the Greco to hide its Semitic origin, influence. And Balkan native languages like that of the E-M78 and I2a(not related in anyway) also contributing to the formation of Greek. Because I’m going to go with the main historical theory of indo-European invasion from the north mixing with all these languages to form Greek. I’m not saying you’re wrong 100%. But there are some inconsistencies in what you say. So I’ll just do more research into this. Post links that support your theory.

[SharpFork]

The main E found today in Greece and Europe is E-M78.
To my knowledge. The only place ancient E-M78 was found is in Morocco around 15,000 years ago attributed to the Iberomaurusian culture, with one skeleton bearing the direct parent lineage to E-V13. This is 100 % where E-V13 comes from. There have been ZERO ancient samples of it in the Levant. And this subclade doesn’t directly have anything to do with the development of farming as that is attributed to Levantine E which is E-Z827 and it’s subclades it’s a little younger and comes from the Natufian influence (who probably also spoke proto- Indo-European according to you). Until there are ancient samples of E-M78 in Anatolia or Levant E-Z827 is the only E that could have entered through the Levant. But it is almost non existent in today’s Greeks. So how you can trace modern or ancient Greek ancestry to this subclade of E when it has nothing to do with it I don’t know. J2 is also not associated with the advent of farming.

E-M78 was most likely in Greece since the Mesolithic. Again there is 0 chance they spoke anything related to what we today consider Indo-European. Also 0 chance they Spoke anything similar to the J2 or E-Z827 of the levant. They(M78) might have contributed to the Greek language but like I said. ~ 50 percent of Greek is of non Indo-European origin. Which makes sense due to its “Greco-Phoenician”, also known as only Phoenician minus the Greco to hide its Semitic origin, influence. And Balkan native languages like that of the E-M78 and I2a(not related in anyway) also contributing to the formation of Greek. Because I’m going to go with the main historical theory of indo-European invasion from the north mixing with all these languages to form Greek. I’m not saying you’re wrong 100%. But there are some inconsistencies in what you say. So I’ll just do more research into this. Post links that support your theory.

Why are you still engaging with a person that clearly doesn't listen anything you say? It's clear she is denying reality and doesn't care what actual scholars on the topic say or what the actual evidence is.

[PAGANE]

http://https://www.deccanherald.com/...Jhr0RHPfQBd2fg

[PAGANE]

DNA study illuminates Indo-European language origins

Read more at: https://www.deccanherald.com/science...Jhr0RHPfQBd2fg https://www.deccanherald.com/science...Jhr0RHPfQBd2fg

[Mens-Sarda]

the Pelasgians were the Minoans, or some of their subjects.

[valentinavalley2]

They most likely had it.


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Kosovo has the highest concentration of E-V13, and also Kosovo was once called Dardania, the same name as what is linked to Troy.... there might be some truth Dardanians of the Balkans were related to Dardanians of Troy...


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