Were the hellenics, ancient greeks, Indians and Egyptians of nordic type

[Token]

Proto-Iranians weren't North Europeans. Proto-Indo-Iranians/Proto-Aryans were North Europeans. Proto-Iranians were a BMAC-North European hybrid and would've resembled Yaghnobis more than any modern North European population.

No evidence of that whatsoever. In contrast, there are good linguistic arguments in favour of Proto-Iranic splitting still in the steppes.

[TheOldNorth]

If we're still on anthroforums after decades and If we have the answers that we should ,such threads will make for great meme material ,the slaps that are coming for certain people will get them on suicide watch...

You know I’m not saying Greeks were nords, I’m saying some Greeks were a bit more steppe then others, because the Greeks came in waves, a first wave that became diluted genetically, but spread their language and religion none the less, a second wave that brought in a new elite that likely bred amongst themselves in a similar fashion to gothic occupied Italy and Spain, in which they held out as a distinct cast for a while but eventually broke down and assimilated into the slightly darker more Mediterranean, Pelegasian descended lower classes in the same way the Indian caste system or the noble classes of east Germanic peoples in the west Mediterranean broke down eventually broke down. This is backed up by historical records that mention the peoples of the city states the most effected by these migrations having been far fairer then middle-eastern, Anatolian, and perhaps even early italic peoples