Why do some non IE peoples such as some turkics carry R1a

[Illyrius]

How did they steal that gene.

[Hajimurad]

Because peoples often switch from one language to another (more dominant). And your question is incorrect.

[Illyrius]

Because peoples often switch from one language to another (more dominant). And your question is incorrect.

Thank God I didn't switch my language
R1b and Indo European languages
Fits perfectly together.

[Hajimurad]

Thank God I didn't switch my language
R1b and Indo European languages
Fits perfectly together.

but majority of your ethnicity belongs to E-V13 and J2b haplogroups. And majority of ethnicities (except some isolated tribes of Amazonia and New Guinea) never be of one haplogroup.

[Illyrius]

but majority of your ethnicity belongs to E-V13 and J2b haplogroups. And majority of ethnicities (except some isolated tribes of Amazonia and New Guinea) never be of one haplogroup.

Yep

[Illyrius]

Buuuuuuuuump

[Kmakkmak]

there is no stealing. this people is turkic with indo european paternal origin. every people is mixed.

[Ülev]

Thank God I didn't switch my language
R1b and Indo European languages
Fits perfectly together.

lol,
- where most people R1b ---> Basque agglutinative language, Bashkir agglutinative language
- where most people R1a ---> for instance - Pashto is still Indo-European

[Kamal900]

Easy. Due to admixture and assimilation. Even we Palestinian Muslim Arabs carry significant Indo-Iranian ancestry as well:
"sample": "Test1alestinian",
"fit": 1.0421,
"Levant_Canaanite_MBA": 53.33,
"Levant_JOR_EBA": 22.5,
"TKM_IA": 13.33,
"Canary_Islands_Guanche": 6.67,
"TZA_Pemba_600BP": 4.17,
"GEO_CHG": 0,

Which is over 13%. Not as high as say the Persian Zoroastrians but still pretty significant when you're talking about non-Indo-European populace such as us.

[Kmakkmak]

R1b and R1a is no indo european. only R1a-M417 and R1b-M269 is indo european