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Thread: Would Australia be a shithole like Mexico if..

  1. #41
    Veteran Member luc2112's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by frankhammer View Post
    No, it would be an equal to other NW western Euro nations.
    NZ is agricultural economics and tourism 72% of the economy is services. NW western hey're not very industrial like Japan and South Korea, but they don't have a lot of population density.

    Quote Originally Posted by frankhammer View Post
    This is no Brasil nor even the USA. Pregnancy doesn't stop the brain functioning nor does it exclude a teen from an education.
    I was talking about the problems in Mexico that are not related to the fact that they are mixed race.

  2. #42
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    Australia still has a large population of degenerates, in comparison to the states.

  3. #43
    Veteran Member luc2112's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Richmondbread View Post
    Australia still has a large population of degenerates, in comparison to the states.
    Australia's homicide rate is only 100K/1.1 they also have full employment. It is prosperous and stable.

  4. #44
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    How can the two even be compared, when colonization of Australia started in 1788 there were an estimated 750,000 largely nomadic aboriginals living in 7.7 million square miles? Their population was reduced to 117,000 by 1900. Meanwhile the European population grew from zero to nearly 2.9 million during that period. Out of the European population 18% had been born in the UK, making Australia similar to North America or most of Argentina rather than Mexico.

    Within the present-day boundaries of Mexico there were some 16 million Indians in 1519, these had a complex civilization with cities and though their population declined, there were still an estimated 2 million Indians by the mid-17th century. The "white" portion of the population was 378,000 in 1700 (21% of the total) and this increased to 1.1 million just before independence in 1814. The white portion had declined to around 18% of the total compared to the 3.7 million Indians and 1.3 million mixed-race individuals and Africans. Also in 1646 there were some 14,000 Spanish-born individuals, and by 1810 they numbered a mere 15,000 or 0.2% of the entire population. Mexico was never a European-majority colony, a more apt comparison would be somewhere like South Africa where Europeans became the dominant minority, but whose numbers were proportionately small.

  5. #45
    Veteran Member luc2112's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Viriatus91 View Post

    Within the present-day boundaries of Mexico there were some 16 million Indians in 1519, these had a complex with cities .
    Backward society compared to European society. more complex society is more difficult to "colonize"

  6. #46
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    Quote Originally Posted by luc2112 View Post
    Backward society compared to European society. more complex society is more difficult to "colonize"
    I was comparing them to the aborigines in Australia, who did not possess a written language, buildings or cities.

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    Quote Originally Posted by luc2112 View Post
    Is related to euro immigrants and not the colonizer
    You are right, but the colonizers influence, in the 13 colonies there was a white majority, while in the colonies of Mexico the majority was indigenous.
    Even before the arrival of the Anglos to Texas, California etc. There was a majority mixed race in those areas.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Teutone View Post
    What?

    Man I swear I cant understand Latinos

    I dont understand how their brains work or if they are capable of understanding basic questions.
    I perfectly understood your question, what I said is that, in addition to Australia being depopulated, many Britons emigrated to that place and remained pure, in Mexico there were only a couple of Spaniards with the mentality of looking for resources and that place was full of indigenous peoples .

    The same thing happened in the Philippines and the Dutch in Indonesia.

  9. #49
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    australia has mick taylor

    enough said

  10. #50
    Veteran Member luc2112's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Ruggery View Post
    You are right, but the colonizers influence, in the 13 colonies there was a white majority, while in the colonies of Mexico the majority was indigenous.
    Even before the arrival of the Anglos to Texas, California etc. There was a majority mixed race in those areas.
    Just look at countries like Belize, Jamaica and English Guiana. Unfortunately we have these irrational and emotional opinions (since Nordics have ego problems).

    1) Europeans spent 1000 years in the Dark Ages until they learned to be civilized, it would be stupid to think that an Amerindian majority would absorb Western civilization in less than 200 years (some cities in Brazil are only 70 years old).
    2) England is a country that went through an agricultural revolution (which financed the industrial revolution), its farmers (immigrants) are progressives.
    3) Japanese and South Koreans are Mongols, concluding that the Amerindians' problem is not racial.
    Last edited by luc2112; 06-26-2020 at 05:10 AM.

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