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I have Colonial American English, mid 1800s Scottish, and late 1800s NW German. whenever a DIY model has a Scandinavian reference population I tend to get a fair representation of Scandinavian, thought I have no direct Scandinavian ancestry. My Scottish has been referred to as Scotch-Irish by some old family members (though I rarely get any Irish reference pops); it is suppose to have some Highlands origin, traced from Scotland to PEI and Ontario briefly before enter the states. My English has been traced to the Virginia colony mid 1700s. my German is traced from Bremen (Northwest Germany) in the late 1800s, so much so that my maternal grandfather's family had to be investigated in some fashion before he could enlist in WW2. the popular for profit companies have usually given me only a small amount of generic Scandinavian with no specific nation listed, and I guess that is reasonable considering the history of the North Sea region. However, lately every DIY model that has a Scandinavian or North-Germanic reference shows around great grandparent level if not higher percentage for that region, even with other Germanic or English references. I've purposely over fitted some models with English and German to see if this Scandinavian still shows-it does. So, for those learned folks out there, how much (DNA) influence did the Vikings really have in the North Sea region outside of their homeland? BTW, my paternal haplogroup is I1 which is Scandinavian routed, though I traced my father's father's etc to mid 1700s England. would that I1 still have such an influence?
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