Originally Posted by
Ouistreham
Very interesting question.
Mainly agricultural regions like used to be Central-Western France should logically have preserved more traditional ways of speaking than the heavily industrial ones.
But just the opposite happened — though it's counter-intuitive.
I observed long time ago that actually, from Bourges and Orléans up to the Western tip of Brittany, there are over 500 or 600 km of distance no audible difference between Orléans, Tours, Angers, Nantes, Rennes, Brest etc. Some specific dialectal words may appear here and there, especially among farmers, but urban people all use the same standard French, devoid of any particular accent.
It's all different around Lyon, where experienced a traumatic industrialization wave 200 years ago. Lyon, Macon, Oyonnax, Chambéry, Annecy, Grenoble, Saint-Etienne, Clermont-Ferrand etc., every city has its own urban accent that can't be confused with the one prevailing 30 km away. Add to this Valence, where Southern influences begin to surface, and it continues into Switzerland (Geneva, lausanne, La Chaud-de-Fonds).
(The phenomenon may have been encouraged by the fact those districts are the so-called Franco-Provençal area, intermediate between Occitan and "normal" French).
It's like the Industrial Revolution had shaped new, specific urban ethnicities.
Same along the Belgian border: there are big differences between Charleville, Valenciennes, Lille and Dunkirk, and —in Wallonia— between Mouscron, Tournai, Mons, Charleroi, Liège.
I wouldn't be surprised if similar situations are observed in the part of England that experienced early industrialization — Midlands, Lancashire, Yorkshire.
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