The 'whitest' mexican football players from the MX League junior teams. Where can they pass?

[Suinthila]

Because they have alot of new migration mixture. And it was from different parts
Also their spanish is not similar to andulusian

There was not so much migration to Mexico after their independence, maybe after the civil war in Spain, around 40,000 at the most. That was one of the cause why the USA stole a half of Mexico, since the US had called millions immigrants and not Mexico. After the hispanic american civil wars (they weren't really wars of independence) the targets for the spanish migration were Cuba, Argentina, Uruguay and Brazil.

Do you know the Andalusian? By the way, there is no Andalusian at all. Suprised? There are dozens of Andalusians.

Do you know all kinds of Spanish language in Mexico? Could you tell between the Spanish spoken in Veracruz and the Spanish spoken in Hermosillo, for instance?

Do you seriously think you're going to find a pure andalusian dialect in the whole Americas, aren't you?

No. You'll find areas that are more influenced by either the spanish school of Seville or the spanish school of Toledo.

Your answer has been funny, as well as your logic: "since those languages don't sound like Andalusian (and I know quite well how Andalusian sounds), then it was not Andalusians the majority of people that migrated there, but any others, for instance, Basques or other people from North Spain.

It was precisely Andalusians, Extremadurans (both of them part of Castille, by the way) and Castilians the majority of people that migrated to the Americas. By the way, the basque provinces were part of Castile much much before America was discovered.

[HelloGuys]

Because they have alot of new migration mixture. And it was from different parts
Also their spanish is not similar to andulusian

No sufrimos tanta inmigración extranjera masiva como para cambiar los genes de todos/en general los mexicanos; se necesitarían una gran cantidad, constante y en mucho tiempo

Y si hablas de los extranjeros españoles/europeos, ellos se asientan mayormente en lugares puntuales como las ciudades grandes y poderosas (DF, Monterrey y Guadalajara) no en pueblitos o ciudades pequeñas; y aún así no creas que llegan en mucha gran cantidad

[zebruh]

There was not so much migration to Mexico after their independence, maybe after the civil war in Spain, around 40,000 at the most. That was one of the cause why the USA stole a half of Mexico, since the US had called millions immigrants and not Mexico. After the hispanic american civil wars (they weren't really wars of independence) the targets for the spanish migration were Cuba, Argentina, Uruguay and Brazil.

Do you know the Andalusian? By the way, there is no Andalusian at all. Suprised? There are dozens of Andalusians.

Do you know all kinds of Spanish language in Mexico? Could you tell between the Spanish spoken in Veracruz and the Spanish spoken in Hermosillo, for instance?

Do you seriously think you're going to find a pure andalusian dialect in the whole Americas, aren't you?

No. You'll find areas that are more influenced by either the spanish school of Seville or the spanish school of Toledo.

Your answer has been funny, as well as your logic: "since those languages don't sound like Andalusian (and I know quite well how Andalusian sounds), then it was not Andalusians the majority of people that migrated there, but any others, for instance, Basques or other people from North Spain.

It was precisely Andalusians, Extremadurans (both of them part of Castille, by the way) and Castilians the majority of people that migrated to the Americas. By the way, the basque provinces were part of Castile much much before America was discovered.

Im talking about migrations from 1600 and after which means up to the point they became independent. They had tons of migration after the 1600s. While the carribean didn't get much.
And yes. The carribean sounds very close to andulusian. Carribean spanish always had. With exeception of some original basque settlers. In records they also use the term pardo because we have portuguese ancestry from original settlers. Mexicans didnt use that term i think.

[HelloGuys]

Im talking about migrations from 1600 and after which means up to the point they became independent. They had tons of migration after the 1600s. While the carribean didn't get much.
And yes. The carribean sounds very close to andulusian. Carribean spanish always had.

Dude, please stop; we mexicans aren't majority of Northern Spain ancestry; we are from Southern and Central of spaniard mix; if you want I can send you info and graphics that corroborate what I am saying

[zebruh]

Also confalting basque with castillians is not good.
Because after the reconquista people were very speculative of others having moorish admixture to travek to the new world you had to be fully spanish iberian with no jewish or moor/ Muslim heritage. They had prove that with the limpieza de sangre. And basque were the only ones people saw as pure iberians left since they werent mixing with muslims
Thats why so many of the first conqustadors were basque. But castillians looked down at basque also sometimes. I forgot who but a conquistadors talked to an aztec. I think maybe hernan cortez and monteczuma or some other mexican native called other natives barbarians. And the conquistador said that was like the basque who also spoke a barbarous language.

[Suinthila]

Im talking about migrations from 1600 and after which means up to the point they became independent. They had tons of migration after the 1600s. While the carribean didn't get much.
And yes. The carribean sounds very close to andulusian. Carribean spanish always had. With exeception of some original basque settlers. In records they also use the term pardo because we have portuguese ancestry from original settlers. Mexicans didnt use that term i think.

Of course. Mexico was one of the richest, if not the richest, vicerroyalty in Hispanic America. Most migration used to chose Mexico as target.

But most of the people were from those territories in the peninsula. That doesn't mean absolutely all of them.

I wish Mexico could have "tons" of spanish migrants, but Spain hadn't ever many inhabitants. That had been a chronic problem in the Vicerroyalty then.

In any case, those supposed "tons" of migrants to Mexico was not that decissive for the independence of Mexico at all. Again, an opinion of yours, not a true judgement.

The Caribbean mght have more andalusian influence in their language since they kept on receiving migrants, most of them mainly from Canary Islands and Andalusia, during all the XIX century --up to the loss of Cuba and Puerto Rico after the Spanish-American war-- even after that, till 1950s, when the Communism arrived to Cuba.

Essentially, Cuba was considered as the 9th andalusian province, actually.

[hmaohma78]

Mexico spanish ancestry is mostly southern and central Spain.

[Suinthila]

Also confalting basque with castillians is not good.
Because after the reconquista people were very speculative of others having moorish admixture to travek to the new world you had to be fully spanish iberian with no jewish or moor/ Muslim heritage. They had prove that with the limpieza de sangre. And basque were the only ones people saw as pure iberians left since they werent mixing with muslims

Another opinion. Nothing real behind it.

You're showing you got lots of blanks --immense-- that you have filled in with predujices, clichés and/or myths. None of them are History or Reality.

I refuse to discuss these themes with you, since you got no knowledge about all that. Make the effort to acquire some kind of knowledge, then you could have some judgement and not only 'opinions'. even though I presume you will do absolutely nothing for that.

Once you'd gotten such an knowledge we could discuss as long as you wish about this issue.

[Cristiano viejo]

Also confalting basque with castillians is not good.
Because after the reconquista people were very speculative of others having moorish admixture to travek to the new world you had to be fully spanish iberian with no jewish or moor/ Muslim heritage. They had prove that with the limpieza de sangre. And basque were the only ones people saw as pure iberians left since they werent mixing with muslims
Thats why so many of the first conqustadors were basque. But castillians looked down at basque also sometimes. I forgot who but a conquistadors talked to an aztec. I think maybe hernan cortez and monteczuma or some other mexican native called other natives barbarians. And the conquistador said that was like the basque who also spoke a barbarous language.

first, Castilians did not look down to Basques. Basques were considered as Castilians as the own Castilians. So happened with Extremadurans or Andalusians. Even the same Pizarro in one of his most famous sentences talks about themselves being just Castilian

According to the traditional version of the story, Pizarro drew a line in the sand with his sword and said, "those on that side of the line can go back to Panama and be poor; those on this side can come to Peru and be rich. Let the good Castillian choose his path."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Famous_Thirteen

second, not only the Basques did not mix with Muslims. Nobody did. The false belief only Basques did not it comes from the false fact that only Vascongadas remained not conquered by Muslims (which is pretty stupid). Navarra, the original Basque homeland, was ruled by Muslims by centuries, and its southern part was reconquered even later than most of Castilla, including Castilla la Mancha.

[zebruh]

Mexico spanish ancestry is mostly southern and central Spain.

Extremadurans are not southern iberian. They central western.
And majority of their ancestry is not andulasian. Its mostly northern castillian and Extremaduran.
The chart shows that.
And i dont even know if thats a reliable chart. Could be inflating andulasian. Even though its no where near as close to carribean andulsian.