Why isn't Basque language indo-European, if vast majority of Basques are R1a and R1b?

[Defcon2]

Exactly the same as in the rest of the peninsula, as a general rule but in different proportions, the R1b is the majority in the entire Iberian peninsula. It reaches around 85% in the Basque country, but in Eastern Andalusia it reaches 77%, in the Northeast of Castilla 72% and in Catalonia around 80%. or in Menorca around 70%.

It does not usually go below 50% anywhere in the peninsula.

Edit:That is why many companies have taken a basque related component as reference for Iberian in autosomal results.On MyHeritage, the closer you got to the Basque core zone, the more Iberico you scored on their ethnic estimates for example.

Well, DF27 within the peninsula varies from a frequency between 10-20% in the southwest and + 60% in the Basques.

[gixajo]

Well, DF27 within the peninsula varies from a frequency between 10-20% in the southwest and + 60% in the Basques.

g]

I was speaking about R1b not about DF27 specifically.

(tocapelotas)

[Defcon2]

I was speaking about R1b not about DF27 specifically.

(tocapelotas)

Where did you get the data for 80% R1b in Catalonia?

DF27 is basically the main haplogroup in the Iberian Peninsula and there is a lot of regional variation.

[gixajo]

DF27 is basically the main haplogroup in the Iberian Peninsula and there is a lot of regional variation.

We were talking about R1b as a Indoeuropean hg, so the subranche under r1b is not relevant in this case.

Where did you get the data for 80% R1b in Catalonia?

.

In the worse site I could have got it !!!



(Insisto en lo de tocapelotas)

[Defcon2]

We were talking about R1b as a Indoeuropean hg, so the subranche under r1b is not relevant in this case.




In the worse site I could have got it !!!



(Insisto en lo de tocapelotas)

In Malaga there is 31% of E

[Kriptc06]

Why Northern Native americans are not indo european?(some southern native americans too)

isn't the R in the americas miss-assigned Q YDNA? Q and R are brother clades

[Rafael Passoni]

Good video, but I can't find it in English.

[Ezio Auditore]

In Malaga there is 31% of E

Hasssss to be moorish influence? Wonder what clades of E..

[Ezio Auditore]

Basque's were genetically Indo-euro-ized they have indo euro DNA but they kept their language regardless. We are learning more than ever that genetics doesn't always coincide with language... For example the Celtic in Iberia theory of having people with DNA almost identical to insular or continental celts is a bit outlandish now that we got iron age samples showing steppe is around the same in pre-Roman samples at that point in time.... Even moreso they basically were identical to bronze age autosomal profiles. Specifically, these samples were in Valencia and Cantabria (this one dates to the Cantabria wars with Rome) so Romans being supposedly fighting ginger Celts, or even celti-iberian people's (as I'd imagine heavily celticized profiles mixed with native Iberian) is probably overexaggerated heavily and the Celtic influence is more language-based not genetic-based. Now the question of why modern Spanish and Portuguese have higher steppe than their ancient profiles is a good one. The increased amount of steppe could be in part due to Romans sending Germanic legions, vandals + other Germanic tribes... And also northern immigration of some sort from reconquista. In Basque land they didn't get this romanization or Moor influence, but they still had the same steppe involvement that all of Iberia had longer ago.

[Mencius]

2000 years later online:

Why are most Minnesotans neo-English speakers when very few have Anglo-Saxon haplogroups?

The answer is obvious- because substantial gene flow is not necessary for languages to spread or go extinct.