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Thread: How long can a pure European turn into a pure Asian?

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    Quote Originally Posted by neclar View Post
    If so, it means that Turks who migrated to Anatolia and Europe, coming from populations that existed 1000 and 2000 years ago respectively in Central Asia and the Altai, are actually 10-20% less phenotypic Asian just because of the evolution . And so, not only phenotypically but also genetically, they turned 10-20% into Anatolians and Europeans, because of evolution.

    And I can't find out their true percentage of real Turk from DNA tests or phenotype. Not? They would get 10-20% less. (1000-2000 years).
    It is much more complicated than that, and in that specific case there are many particular nuances.

    I am also not a great connoisseur of the genetics of that area, but it is a genetically very rich area, in the sense that it is both a source of emission and a receiver of many varied ethnic groups, some very different from each other.

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    Definetly way more complicated than a fraction of evolution rate by years. I could make appear all Sicilian blond in a few generations by just selecting them to reproduce and elminate the others, or reversely make all Norwegians brown eyes for example (god mode is cheating, don't do that). Some populations would never change for 10ky if they were somewhat placed in an historical bubble.

    What you are really asking, considering your other topics is if the east eurasian you score supposedly is due to evolution or not, and the answer is no. You are Eurasian as opposed to African or Papuan, because of evolution mostly, but Europeans are not different because of evolution, they are relatively different because of different propotions of admixtures in the last 10 000 years or so. Although it's possible that some territories created their own look given a similar base genepool, at least some specific varieties of it, but that's more due to sexual selection and maybe cultural aspects.
    Last edited by Petalpusher; 05-12-2021 at 05:43 PM.

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    Quote Originally Posted by neclar View Post
    If so, it means that Turks who migrated to Anatolia and Europe, coming from populations that existed 1000 and 2000 years ago respectively in Central Asia and the Altai, are actually 10-20% less phenotypic Asian just because of the evolution . And so, not only phenotypically but also genetically, they turned 10-20% into Anatolians and Europeans, because of evolution.

    And I can't find out their true percentage of real Turk from DNA tests or phenotype. Not? They would get 10-20% less. (1000-2000 years).
    Do you mean Today Turks?
    Im a real Turk and i have still 1-2% Mongol/Kazakhistan in my DNA left some Persian and mostly Anatolian/Caucasian 94%

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    Quote Originally Posted by gixajo View Post
    I would say that in 5-6 generations aprox. genetically, and maybe physically even in fewer generations (3-4). of course this varies depending of every individual and how close is the original ethnicity to Asians. Carton déménagement pour bouteille(I supose that Black traits tend to be more difficult to "dissolve" than European ones).

    Mixing in each generation with "pure" Asians , whatever their ethnicity of origin was, autosomally in 5 generations will be practically similar to anyone of their environment (aprox. 97%), although there may always be some very residual trait that reminds the ethnic group of their ancestor phisically (or maybe not).
    We will therefore witness a total upheaval of the whole universe if I understand correctly.

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