Why does Scotland have less historic woodland than England

[Davystayn]

Possibly, from memory I think the most extensive forest clearances started after 1066. The wood was more part of the Anglo-Saxon folklore.

Interesting, just followed this up and found this study:

https://discovery.ucl.ac.uk/id/eprint/20204/
Abstract
This thesis presents an interdisciplinary cultural history of the Anglo-Saxon relationship with trees and woodland. Although the paramount importance of woodland to the Anglo-Saxon world is a known and undisputed aspect of early medieval studies, the intricacies of the relationship between the Anglo-Saxons and trees have never been fully appreciated because this subject has not, until now, been the focus of an interdisciplinary study. By exploring the representation of trees and woodland in Old English literary culture in the context of Anglo-Saxon literary-historical sources and the early medieval archaeological record, this thesis seeks to shed new light upon the terms of this complex interaction. I present arguments for the existence of a common Germanic tree creation myth, reaffirm the notion of an Anglo-Saxon world tree analogous to the Norse Yggdrasill that was subsequently replaced by the cross, and re-evaluate the role of trees in Anglo-Saxon heathenism and Christianity. I demonstrate that the paramount importance of woodland in Anglo-Saxon material culture was understood, appreciated, and is well represented in Old English literature. Furthermore, I show that attitudes towards the physical make-up of settlements were strongly defined by an enduring attachment to woodland that had its origins in the forests of first-century Germany.

[Oliver109]

You also had hunting forests which preserved large areas in the south east, also sheep are only widespread in upland areas with poor soil and topography for crops.

In West Eng the woods have mainly survived in steep slopes on the side and top of hills, most of the acccesibe hilly areas have sheep or cattle. It isn't as good for crops in the west generally as the lower lying areas which cover much of eastern Eng

True, for some reason this is not the case in Ireland, not really the case in Wales either(plenty of pine plantations though away from the forest of Dean there is precious little proper old woodland) Interesting study you posted about the Anglo Saxon relationship with trees, that may explain why the most heavily settled areas by Anglo Saxons including Devon have lots of woods while those settled by Celts or Picts never had the same emotional attachment to old woodland.

[Davystayn]

True, for some reason this is not the case in Ireland, not really the case in Wales either(plenty of pine plantations though away from the forest of Dean there is precious little proper old woodland) Interesting study you posted about the Anglo Saxon relationship with trees, that may explain why the most heavily settled areas by Anglo Saxons including Devon have lots of woods while those settled by Celts or Picts never had the same emotional attachment to old woodland.

Yes an interesting idea backed up by these studies, you do have remnants of ancient forest in Wales but these are mainly in the valleys and lower lying areas, most of it is hilly and poorer soil, moorland and bogs, same as Ireland

[Oliver109]

Yes an interesting idea backed up by these studies, you do have remnants of ancient forest in Wales but these are mainly in the valleys and lower lying areas, most of it is hilly and poorer soil, moorland and bogs, same as Ireland

Apparently Ireland lost a lot of it's forest when it's population was much greater before the famine, land management laws i think were always different in Ireland, i heard a lot of their timber also got shipped to the UK, Ireland would have been much more forested in the Celtic times i imagine.