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I dont think so, I remember Carlito's having articles and graphs about this during the colonial period of Mexico. I think he also mentioned many of the Extremudrans that came to Mexico were half Portuguese. I would need to ask him if he can send me the articles so I can post it here, I don't know a lot about the European immigration into Mexico, I lack knowledge on this topic.
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I think they can. For example, I remember Carlitos Way saying that Portuguese settled in colonial Mexico (and they did) and got absorbed into the Hispano-Amerindian masses.
I doubt any region of Iberian-America had it's European colonial imput wholly originated from Spain and Portugal, they also had other smaller non-Iberian imputs, just like the USA had French Huguenots, Germans, Swedes, Dutchs among their colonial stock, not just Britons, even if they were the majority.
In Brazil, for example, we had Spanish people in colonial Brazil, even Basques, that were absorbed in our pop. Same for Italians, like the family Doria and Cavalcanti.
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The Cavalcanti family that stablished roots in Brazil during our colonial period mixed with pred-Portuguese Brazilians of high status, like Dona Catarina de Albuquerque.
Regarding Spaniards in colonial Brazil, they settled here mainly during the Iberian Union, surnames like Camargo, Godoy, etc. are inherited from them.
French people also settled in colonial Brazil and mixed with Amerindians. Their genetic legacy, I'm not so sure. The Dutch... they left some genetics marks in places like Pernambuco, but uniparental/small. There were also gypsies being dumped in colonial Brazil (degregados), but their phenotypical/genotypical impact...not sure as well.
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Well are portuguese genetically the same as Spanish first of all? I asked this before but didn't got a reply in other thread.
That's like asking If Ireland and Northern Ireland are genetically different?...
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