It is because it normal for males, according to the Quran, the Sunnah and Islamic jurisprudence, to be aroused by little girls.
Ex. from Islamic jurisprudence:
“A husband need not support a wife too young for intercourse, but
how young was too young? Readiness to consummate a marriage did not necessarily depend on a girl’s attainment of bulugh, majority.
It was permissible to consummate a marriage with a minor if one has sex with those like her. [...] Rather than having a strict age-based limit, or one dependent on menarche, the determination of female readiness for sex (and thus cohabitation and support) hinged on physical sturdiness and appeal to men.”
https://books.google.be/books?id=PeO...course&f=false
“From the cases that were brought to court we learn that muftis and qadis would ensure that the minor girl was able to “endure” intercourse (tutiq al wat’). This also explains why there was no need to mention a “minimum age”:
it was the girl’s physical appearance (“plump and buxom”) that signaled whether the marriage could be consummated without endue harm. That the attainment of sexual maturity or the occurrence of menstruation were not seen as preconditions for the consummation of the marriage further underscores that marriage was not a symmetrical relationship.”
https://books.google.be/books?id=bzX...0islam&f=false
footnote 21: “Ali, 2006, 144 argues that medieval Fiqh manuals do not presuppose a person’s reaching puberty as a necessary condition for consummation of marriage”.
https://books.google.be/books?id=iDQ...0islam&f=false
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