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The idea that Persians are simply "assimilated elamites" or assimilated middle easterners, when in reality, 1/4 of their ancestry is Iranic derived.
-Aryan being a racial classification, when in fact, its an ethno-linguistic one.
-Iran "stole" the name Aryana from what is now afghanistan.
-Arabs massacring the Iranian population and replacing Iranians.
-Azerbaijanis are turkified persians. It appears they have over 20-25% east asian ancestry.
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Palestinians have significant Peninsular ancestry, so it'd be better to compare them to Levantine Christians and especially Samaritans (they're still closer to South Italians than to those, but not as much). We also have to keep in mind there was West Asian (mainly Levantine & Anatolian Greek) migration to Southern Europe.
It makes more sense to assume that early Jewish migrants to Rome didn't mix much at first and then they mixed later with Germans to a degree, especially considering their mother tongue Yiddish have German origins. And people are more conservative early on compared to living in a land for a time. If you model Jews with Germans and Canaanites, you're more likely to get something similar to South Italians. And this would explain why they have Semitic Y-DNA.
If EEJs are simply Romans that migrated to the Levant and back, then how did they avoid admixture in every place that they lived in? Why do they have Semitic Y-DNA? And how did they become Jewish?
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That Moldovans (especially northern ones) are assimilated full slavic Ukrainians, when in reality they are heavily Balkan genetically. These claims came from both Moldophobic Pan-Slavic Russophones and Moldophobic Romanians (especially Wallachians).
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