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Thread: Myths debunked by genetic studies.

  1. #21
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Romans having 0 genetic impact in any ex-Roman colonies.

    Iraqi Arabs being Arabized Assyrians/Akkadians and Khuzestani Arabs being Arabized Persians when the majority of their ancestries is Peninsular Arab. Arabization in general was very overplayed and the genetic impact very underplayed similar to the examples you gave. Arabs had a genetic impact in modern Arabic-speaking lands with the least impact being in the Maghreb. I think only Christian Levantines would have 0 ancestry from Peninsular Arabs of the Islamic Era.

    Speakers of Native American languages having no European ancestry.

    It seems that the popular thought used to be that invading forces will always be too small compared to locals that previously inhabited the region and that all instances of "-ization/-ification" were simply just linguistic and that cause the invaders were outnumbered, they would assimilate without making any genetic impact. Not like this is impossible (e.g. Hungary), but it's rare that a group colonizes a region without making a genetic impact.
    Roman ancestry seems to of been mostly female mediated in the Balkans since Y-DNA such as J-L283, R-CTS1450, R-PF7562, I-M223, E-V13, G, J2a are pre-Roman.

  2. #22
    Veteran Member celticdragongod's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by dviz View Post
    Actually, genetic studies show that Ashkenazis are mostly descendants of Roman settlers in Judaea who converted to Judaism, assimilated some locals into the group, and later migrated back to Europe.
    What genetic studies show that?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Varda View Post
    - That Turks are turkified Anatolians without or with very little Turkic ancestry (Turks are autosomally 30-35% on average Turkic if i am not wrong)
    They are around 30-35% Proto-Turkic, but their Central Asian Turkic ancestry (which includes non-Turkic elements) is about 50%.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Romans having 0 genetic impact in any ex-Roman colonies.

    Iraqi Arabs being Arabized Assyrians/Akkadians and Khuzestani Arabs being Arabized Persians when the majority of their ancestries is Peninsular Arab. Arabization in general was very overplayed and the genetic impact very underplayed similar to the examples you gave. Arabs had a genetic impact in modern Arabic-speaking lands with the least impact being in the Maghreb. I think only Christian Levantines would have 0 ancestry from Peninsular Arabs of the Islamic Era.

    Speakers of Native American languages having no European ancestry.

    It seems that the popular thought used to be that invading forces will always be too small compared to locals that previously inhabited the region and that all instances of "-ization/-ification" were simply just linguistic and that cause the invaders were outnumbered, they would assimilate without making any genetic impact. Not like this is impossible (e.g. Hungary), but it's rare that a group colonizes a region without making a genetic impact.
    The idea that Persians are simply "assimilated elamites" or assimilated middle easterners, when in reality, 1/4 of their ancestry is Iranic derived.

    -Aryan being a racial classification, when in fact, its an ethno-linguistic one.

    -Iran "stole" the name Aryana from what is now afghanistan.

    -Arabs massacring the Iranian population and replacing Iranians.

    -Azerbaijanis are turkified persians. It appears they have over 20-25% east asian ancestry.

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    Quote Originally Posted by dviz View Post
    EEJs are closer to Italians than to their Palestinian neighbors, so I would say they're less than 50% present-day Levant.

    Roman Levant was part Greco-Roman, we have to be careful how we interpret those percentages.
    Palestinians have significant Peninsular ancestry, so it'd be better to compare them to Levantine Christians and especially Samaritans (they're still closer to South Italians than to those, but not as much). We also have to keep in mind there was West Asian (mainly Levantine & Anatolian Greek) migration to Southern Europe.

    It makes more sense to assume that early Jewish migrants to Rome didn't mix much at first and then they mixed later with Germans to a degree, especially considering their mother tongue Yiddish have German origins. And people are more conservative early on compared to living in a land for a time. If you model Jews with Germans and Canaanites, you're more likely to get something similar to South Italians. And this would explain why they have Semitic Y-DNA.

    If EEJs are simply Romans that migrated to the Levant and back, then how did they avoid admixture in every place that they lived in? Why do they have Semitic Y-DNA? And how did they become Jewish?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Snake_ View Post
    Roman ancestry seems to of been mostly female mediated in the Balkans since Y-DNA such as J-L283, R-CTS1450, R-PF7562, I-M223, E-V13, G, J2a are pre-Roman.
    Do you know what Balkan mtDNAs are linked with Romans? And what the range of Roman ancestry is in the Balkans?

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    Quote Originally Posted by JohnnyP View Post
    That Ancient Macedonians were not a Greeks.
    I don't think that's a popular myth, most people already know Ancient Macedonians were Greek or Greek-Like.
    Full Ethnicity Breakdowns:
    Spoiler!


  8. #28
    Senior Member dviz's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by celticdragongod View Post
    What genetic studies show that?
    See the link I gave on the second page of the thread.

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    That Moldovans (especially northern ones) are assimilated full slavic Ukrainians, when in reality they are heavily Balkan genetically. These claims came from both Moldophobic Pan-Slavic Russophones and Moldophobic Romanians (especially Wallachians).

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    Quote Originally Posted by Aspirin View Post
    That Moldovans (especially northern ones) are assimilated full slavic Ukrainians, when in reality they are heavily Balkan genetically. These claims came from both Moldophobic Pan-Slavic Russophones and Moldophobic Romanians (especially Wallachians).
    But Moldavians are more Slavic than Balkanic, is not it?

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