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Why I ask this question - there are many discrepancies in studies related to ancient DNA and modeling modern populations using ancient ones. For example, a popular model of the origin of current Europeans is a mixture of a steppe component (Yamnaya culture), Western hunters-gatherers (WHG) and Ancient Neolithic farmers (ANF). At the same time, the percent of the steppe component in the models is large, 40-60% in many European populations. Ancient DNA showed that the steppe component began to spread across Europe with the Corded Ware culture, and then the Bell-Beaker culture. And now I want to show you what the discrepancy is. I will take the calculator Eurogenes K13. In the table below, I have given as an example some populations of Yamnaya, Corded Ware and Bell-Beaker (first three rows), as well as some modern European populations. Please pay attention to the Amerindian component, which is highlighted in red. This component in Eurogenes k13 is characteristic of Eastern hunters-gatherers, as well as of Yamnaya culture (about 5%). It is also prominent in Corded Ware and Bell-Beaker cultures. Moreover, in proportion to the contribution of Yamnaya culture to them (the contribution of Yamnaya culture to Corded Ware is approximately 80%, to Bell-Beaker - approximately 60%). But in modern populations, this component is very low - on average 0.5%, that is, only 10 percent of the percentage in Yamnaya culture for this component. Genetic drift can be ignored, since after the spread of Corded Ware and Bell-Beakers, this was no longer a small group in which this Amerindian component could be reduced by genetic drift.
Is it possible that the Amerindian component is decreasing because certain allele frequencies "pick up" other components, that is, they are not additive? Or indeed the steppe component in current Europeans is not about 50%? I gave an amateur calculator as an example, in scientific works that use Admixture, the picture turns out to be similar.
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