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I am trying to understand the legal relationship that a historical Jesus may have had for his saviorship to be legally significant from a rational, secular standpoint.
I'm not interested in theological ideas on this matter. I understand the "original sin" nonsense and the immaculate conception and all of that business. If that's the basis of Christian political impact, I file it with superstition.
I'm interested instead in how historical Christianity had its impact in ending slavery and how this relates to Jesus's opposition to the usury of the Pharisees. This would seem to suggest that there was some kind of legal relationship, binding upon the Pharisees, that allowed Jesus, a descendent of the House of David, to take upon himself a SURETYSHIP for the rest of us. I'm interested in the historical and legal nature of this surety relationship.
Again, I understand the "God's son" bit. I'm not interested in that. I'm interested in how that makes him able to die for our apparent debts to Jews here on Earth.
Is anyone here equipped to explain this? Does it have to do with a historical, royal trustee relationship with the House of David that makes Jesus a sort of trustee, or something of that sort?
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