Has there been genetic studies done on the remains of any Moorish inhabitants from Al-Andalus?

[vader]

I thought it was common knowledge by now that NA was introduced in the roman period. Some samples came out after the Olalde study and they were very revealing:



These are samples from the late roman empire, and all of them score Taforalt. One of them (Portugal_Miroico_LateRoman.SG) even socres very close to the modern portuguese sample in the bottom. So to say the greatest impact was in the islamic period is incorrect, it was already there before.

we def. need more samples. But these are good exemplars for berber dna reaching contemporary Portuguese levels. Now my question would be... what ethnogenesized the dna so that we wont have many outliers like these roman samples had. I think moorish era contributed to creating a max, and min.

[andrzej]

Muslim era samples having a avr of abt 10% Taforalt
Roman Era samples havinga a avr abt 7.6% Taforalt (conimbriga samples are the one with low NA admix)

Out of curiosity what is the % of Taforalt for western/southern/central France since it seems these regions experienced admixture too?

[Damião de Góis]

we def. need more samples. But these are good exemplars for berber dna reaching contemporary Portuguese levels. Now my question would be... what ethnogenesized the dna so that we wont have many outliers like these roman samples had. I think moorish era contributed to creating a max, and min.

The samples with TUR_Tepecik_Ciftlik_N are clearly foreigners, or new arrivals. Mordern portuguese have 0% TUR_Tepecik_Ciftlik_N, so we should only be looking at the samples without it. The samples without it pretty much average what modern portuguese have today of NA. But yeah, we would need more samples to make a better conclusion regarding this.

[Jingle Bell]

Out of curiosity what is the % of Taforalt for western/southern/central France since it seems these regions experienced admixture too?

~0%
[Imgur](https://imgur.com/xvxRL1K)

France for sure got no NA impact either from Roman or Middle Age

France its basically Gaul, with some Iberian/Germanic/Italic admixture but for sure mostly Gaul, the French IA samples which we have (A lot by the way) clust very close with modern Frenchs and sooooome to Basques/NE Iberians:

[Jingle Bell]

Ik the main topic of Thread its abt NORTH AFRICAN influx in Iberia, but i also noticed some Northern euro/High Steppe influx:



Sadly just Spanish samples (But from a lot of places), but i think its enough representative but u guys can see a lot of variation from 16.8% - 28.2% Steppe, but the majority its around 20%



again even in other very far places the avr its abt 20%(seens somewhat homogenized)

Now lets just jump some 300 years and see how even with a bigger foreinger admix (East med, NA) the steppe avr actually got higher (The expect was abt the inverse)

excluding heavily NA outliers individuals:


Got up to 26% in avr, how? even with more NA admix (with average of abt 10% Guanche like even with the big variation)
So how that happened? that samples got more NA admix at the same time more N. Euro like too? and no its not From Suebi/Visigothic admix, for example the samples from Miroiço are from 257CE, waaaaaaaay before the earliest Suebi settlers (409 CE), Vandals (410 CE) and the Visigothics (475 CE), so that extra Steppe was not of Germanic origin so when its comes from? Conimbriga samples have about 27% Steppe (even with some NA & East Med admix) and still have waaay more than preceding IA samples from Iberia.

and modern Iberians have even more Steppe than their Roman Era ancestors (26% x 30%), thats sugest a another steppe influx (but that one prob related to visigothic settlers, reconsquistadores from France, Briton imigration (?), and overall european influx) but how explain that pre-germanic post-roman additional Steppe influx? when they were supossed to got less Steppe than their IA counterparts considering the additional NA/East Med influx?

a example adding a Steppe-Rich sample: (Even using Celtiberian Ia that was the most Steppe rich sample of IA)



Don u guys think im overlooking something, or that its plausible Iberia had some sort of Steppe-Rich admix after IA and before Visigothic era?

[Eurafricanid]

Ik the main topic of Thread its abt NORTH AFRICAN influx in Iberia, but i also noticed some Northern euro/High Steppe influx:



Sadly just Spanish samples (But from a lot of places), but i think its enough representative but u guys can see a lot of variation from 16.8% - 28.2% Steppe, but the majority its around 20%



again even in other very far places the avr its abt 20%(seens somewhat homogenized)

Now lets just jump some 300 years and see how even with a bigger foreinger admix (East med, NA) the steppe avr actually got higher (The expect was abt the inverse)

excluding heavily NA outliers individuals:


Got up to 26% in avr, how? even with more NA admix (with average of abt 10% Guanche like even with the big variation)
So how that happened? that samples got more NA admix at the same time more N. Euro like too? and no its not From Suebi/Visigothic admix, for example the samples from Miroiço are from 257CE, waaaaaaaay before the earliest Suebi settlers (409 CE), Vandals (410 CE) and the Visigothics (475 CE), so that extra Steppe was not of Germanic origin so when its comes from? Conimbriga samples have about 27% Steppe (even with some NA & East Med admix) and still have waaay more than preceding IA samples from Iberia.

and modern Iberians have even more Steppe than their Roman Era ancestors (26% x 30%), thats sugest a another steppe influx (but that one prob related to visigothic settlers, reconsquistadores from France, Briton imigration (?), and overall european influx) but how explain that pre-germanic post-roman additional Steppe influx? when they were supossed to got less Steppe than their IA counterparts considering the additional NA/East Med influx?

a example adding a Steppe-Rich sample: (Even using Celtiberian Ia that was the most Steppe rich sample of IA)



Don u guys think im overlooking something, or that its plausible Iberia had some sort of Steppe-Rich admix after IA and before Visigothic era?

That is deffinitely interesting, but the only thing I can think of is addicional ancestry comming from Gallia south into Iberia, because the IA ancestry deffinitely diminished, since the WHG went down, so it was a Steppe-rich ancestry without much WHG, like the others we've seen in IA Iberia.

[Damião de Góis]

Now lets just jump some 300 years and see how even with a bigger foreinger admix (East med, NA) the steppe avr actually got higher (The expect was abt the inverse)

In my opinion this comparison is not correct because it's comparing Spain_IA (who are from the northeast if i remember correctly) and these samples from the Roman Emprie in the modern Portugal region. We don't know if Portugal_IA samples from the same region were going to be "basques" as well. We don't have those samples, so their starting point could be different to begin with.

[andrzej]

~0%
[Imgur](https://imgur.com/xvxRL1K)

France for sure got no NA impact either from Roman or Middle Age

France its basically Gaul, with some Iberian/Germanic/Italic admixture but for sure mostly Gaul, the French IA samples which we have (A lot by the way) clust very close with modern Frenchs and sooooome to Basques/NE Iberians:

Two of those samples are from the extreme north and east, from what I've seen some NA admixture is found more in the west.

[Flashball]

Two of those samples are from the extreme north and east, from what I've seen some NA admixture is found more in the west.

Gaulish samples
https://pastebin.com/uHenViZP

Ethnic French (personnal database with genealogy), average taforalt > 0% :
https://pastebin.com/KVdw4BYn