Ik the main topic of Thread its abt NORTH AFRICAN influx in Iberia, but i also noticed some Northern euro/High Steppe influx:
Sadly just Spanish samples (But from a lot of places), but i think its enough representative but u guys can see a lot of variation from 16.8% - 28.2% Steppe, but the majority its around 20%
again even in other very far places the avr its abt 20%(seens somewhat homogenized)
Now lets just jump some 300 years and see how even with a bigger foreinger admix (East med, NA) the steppe avr actually got higher (The expect was abt the inverse)
excluding heavily NA outliers individuals:
Got up to 26% in avr, how? even with more NA admix (with average of abt 10% Guanche like even with the big variation)
So how that happened? that samples got more NA admix at the same time more N. Euro like too? and no its not From Suebi/Visigothic admix, for example the samples from Miroiço are from 257CE, waaaaaaaay before the earliest Suebi settlers (409 CE), Vandals (410 CE) and the Visigothics (475 CE), so that extra Steppe was not of Germanic origin so when its comes from? Conimbriga samples have about 27% Steppe (even with some NA & East Med admix) and still have waaay more than preceding IA samples from Iberia.
and modern Iberians have even more Steppe than their Roman Era ancestors (26% x 30%), thats sugest a another steppe influx (but that one prob related to visigothic settlers, reconsquistadores from France, Briton imigration (?), and overall european influx) but how explain that pre-germanic post-roman additional Steppe influx? when they were supossed to got less Steppe than their IA counterparts considering the additional NA/East Med influx?
a example adding a Steppe-Rich sample: (Even using Celtiberian Ia that was the most Steppe rich sample of IA)
Don u guys think im overlooking something, or that its plausible Iberia had some sort of Steppe-Rich admix after IA and before Visigothic era?
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