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If IQ is reflective of genetics only then how come we have Mongoloids, Turko-Iranics, Caucasians, and Indopaks scoring similarly in hard sciences H-Index or intellect based competitions?
People practice witchcraft, eastern medicine, spirituality, and pray to unseen gods too in the modern world.
I have already explained that molecular neurologists do not consider IQ tests as absolute science because, before IQ scoring, samples are never normalized. Let alone this 19th-century test, they would not even take static neuroimaging seriously (90s science) since intellect stimuli are now established to be a a dynamic process.
I care for mathematical reality, not what Wikipedia says. And yes taxonomy is a pseudoscience because cranial measurements + pigmentation, the baseline of taxonomy, often do not have any relationship with genetics. An Iranic man can have the same cranial measurement or pigmentation as a Germanic yet they are far apart from each other in their genetics. What is happening here? the molecular reality (genetics) does not align with pseudoscience from the 19th century which was based upon macro scale metrics, the only tool available back then. Case of IQ is the same being from the same obsolete era.
If you are accepting that PISA tests do not normalize the samples before comparing them then you are accepting that PISA tests are not valid. Again you did not answer my question, when it's a FACT that cognitive development reflects environmental growth, how can two groups who received no standardized environment growing up, be compared?
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