Is Scotland unique?

[Watersater79]

At the very least, in a NW European context it appears to be.
Prior to the 4th century, Scotland was divided into two areas, a Britonic south and a Pictish north. The dividing line was the Antonine Wall between the firths of Clyde and Forth. Scotland's shape somewhat resembles that of an hourglass with a very compressed middle (either side being said firths) and with a substantial widening to the north and south. The Picts would have had a massive genetic overlap with the Britons, but this geographical factor no doubt ensured some kind of genetic (and cultural) drift. The same goes for the linguistic side of things. There are some stark similarities between Pictish and common Brittonic, but enough differences to ensure we can't consider them to have been the same people linguistically. From the 4th Century onwards, Scotland's linguistic history changed forever, as a result of migrations. Tribes migrated across from Ireland and naturally, their core areas of settlement were in the western parts. It is unlikely they were large in number, but they were able to dominate to a point that their Gaelic language spread east, whereby the remaining unadmixed Picts were subsumed into their culture, and the Kingdom of Alba was formed. The southern portion of Scotland had a more haphazard linguistic history. The western part (Galloway) was a Gaelic stronghold, but the eastern part had represented the northern portion of the Anglo-Saxon kingdom of Northumbria. The Britonic culture in said area had been completely subsumed into the Anglian one, even if the 'Anglian' element within the population was never large. The only area of the south to see a survival of its native linguistic makeup was the central portion (modern day Lanarkshire). Eventually, the old English spoken in Northumbria would end up extinguishing what remained of Britonic in the south, and pushing Gaelic to the northwestern extremities.
Anyway, I digress. In a simplistic statement, northern Scotland went from being Pictish, to Gaelic-speaking, to a point where Gaelic was spoken only in the west, and 'Scots' (bearing much overlap with English) became the native tongue of most of its inhabitants. The south went from being Britonic speaking, to a point where its survival was purely confined to the central portion with Northumbrian Old English becoming the linguistic mainstay of its eastern inhabitants and Gaelic in the west. Eventually, English/Scots became the lingua franca of the entirety of its inhabitants. It's most interesting in the context of those in the east, who are now two languages from their original.
Is their another nation like this? Hungarians speak a Finno-Ugric language so devoid of any overlap with their neighbours and yet, by all genetic accounts, they bear a negligible genetic difference to their northern Slavic neighbours. England simply went from being speaking Britonic to speaking a Germanic language, and the majority of its native population were replaced by the migrations from the 4th century-onwards. The majority of Scotland's native population is still overwhelmingly Pictish/Brythonic on the other hand.

[Anglo-Celtic]

I just have one question. Are Picts covered under the new Orwellian hate speech law?

[earthtube]

It is unique in a similar way to the Bretons of France. The people of what was once called Armorica were Gaulish speakers, and their language was displaced by Latin. Following this Latin was again displaced by migrating Celtic Britons, coming to call Armorica Brittany, otherwise known as Little Britain. Since the centralization of the French state following the French Revolution, successive republics have sought to discourage and attack native minority languages, and gradually Breton has been displaced by French.

[Russki]