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Not sure if anyone can really answer this question or not but did the Norse really rape when they would sack an area, in particular England? I realize that at first they started out by sacking but began to settle into areas in the British Isles.
Also, when they started to settle did they intermix with the locals or did they only stick with their own, or both?
And finally, how would you think that Norse ydna would end up in parts of England that didn't have any Norse settlements? For example, Norse ydna found in descendants of families from Cornwall or Devon whose families had been in these areas since at least before the 1400's?
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