What is the South European(Mediterranean) component closest to?

[Insuperable]

I knew on previous threads to make mistakes because I did not read Dienekes's blog sites thoroughly.

So, have in mind that Caucasus component≠West Asian component and has different meanings from calculator to calculator

Of course none of this components are real and have many assumptions.

Graphs I posted are probably related to k7b and k12b calculators.
To understand all this you should read the following http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2012/09...decad-k7b.html
For example.
At K=12, this West Asian component is largely replaced by two others,
the Caucasus and Gedrosia components that reach their highest
occurrence in the Caucasus and Baluchistan respectively
The K=12 Caucasus component appears to be a mixture of K=7 "West
Asian" + "Southern". Oetzi has ~20% Caucasus and ~0% West Asian. Since the Caucasus component is West Asian + Southern, this means that his
"Caucasus" admixture is due to the "Southern" and not to the "West
Asian" part.

[Prince Carlo]

Are we talking about Mediterranean component from Dodecad or Eurogenes? Because there is a difference. And I don't really trust Dienekes Pontikos.

The South West Asian component is MODAL on heavily negroid amixed Beduins. Its caucasoid is mainly mediterranean and a little bit west asian. Semitic speakers are not native of Arabia and came from Northern Mesopotamia/Levant.

[Han Cholo]

Are we talking about Mediterranean component from Dodecad or Eurogenes? Because there is a difference. And I don't really trust Dienekes Pontikos.

The South West Asian component is MODAL on heavily negroid amixed Beduins. Its caucasoid is mainly mediterranean and a little bit west asian. Semitic speakers are not native of Arabia and came from Northern Mesopotamia/Levant.

Semitic languages are not indigenous to Arabia but Arabia is likely proto-Afro-Asiatic homeland. All Afro-Asiates have a significant degree of SouthWest Asian. Assyrians, Ethiopians, Somalians, Egyptians, Tunisians, etc.. I believe Semitic developed out of contact with more Northern cultures similar to Hurrians, Kavkazians, Urartians, Sumerians, etc.

[Prince Carlo]

Semitic languages are not indigenous to Arabia but Arabia is likely proto-Afro-Asiatic homeland.

I do think that they are native of Southern Levant or perhaps Mesopotamia. But we don't know for sure.

All Afro-Asiates have a significant degree of SouthWest Asian. Assyrians, Ethiopians, Somalians, Egyptians, Tunisians, etc..

Do you know if Chadic and Cushitic speakers have SWA admix?

I believe Semitic developed out of contact with more Northern cultures similar to Hurrians, Kavkazians, Urartians, Sumerians, etc.

All semitic languages have sumerian and also caucasian loan words (including arabian), so the proto-semitic language originated in the north.

[Han Cholo]

I do think that they are native of Southern Levant or perhaps Mesopotamia. But we don't know for sure.

I think Afro-Asiatic expanded from Arabia in all directions and became Egyptian in West, Semitic in North, Cushitic South, and Berberic further west.

Do you know if Chadic and Cushitic speakers have SWA admix?

Cushitic speakers certainly do, with almost 0 West Asian and 0 Med:



I don't think there are advanced tests on Chadic speakers though.

SW Asian is present on all Afro-Asiatic speakers of different kinds and continents. West Asian peaks in non-Afro Asiatic groups, and is also almost lacking over half of Afro-Asiatic speakers sampled.

All semitic languages have sumerian and also caucasian loan words (including arabian), so the proto-semitic language originated in the north.

Yes, but I think all these loanwords are lacking in other Afro-Asiatic families.

[Prince Carlo]

SW Asian is present on all Afro-Asiatic speakers of different kinds and continents. West Asian peaks in non-Afro Asiatic groups.

It could be because Beduins have african admixture which is also present in most SSA shifted MENAs. Anyway Mozabites have barely any SWA.

[Han Cholo]

It could be because Beduins have african admixture which is also present in most SSA shifted MENAs. Anyway Mozabites have barely any SWA.

It's perfectly congruent with them being the most far away of Afro-Asiatic urhemait. Moroccans also don't have that much (and they have nearly 0 West Asian also.)

[zlakopistou]

Ouch!... The level is very low.


You don't understand the components have different meanings depending on the test. For instance, in 2 different runs from Dienekes with a "mediterranean" component, the meaning of the components will be different even if they have the same name and so are the scores.

What is sure is we are and will be understanding more and more the complex migrations of the past, like the Asian-shift of Europeans, the "Eastern" origin and recent arrival of the components modal in the Caucasus around the mediterranean and Europe, the various part-West Eurasian hybrids in South Asia, North Eurasia and Sub-Saharan Africa... and the non-West Eurasian ancestry in pred-West Eurasians.

Also, don't assume anything about phenotype with components of admixture tests: it doesn't work that way (apart from pred-West Eurasian = caucasoid).

I wanna add a thing: modern West Asians aren't the ancestors of Europeans. No modern people and their appearance is the ancestor of other modern peoples. Circassianwine seems to think Circassian are European, which is not true.

[Food]

troll thread.

[StonyArabia]

Are we talking about Mediterranean component from Dodecad or Eurogenes? Because there is a difference. And I don't really trust Dienekes Pontikos.

The South West Asian component is MODAL on heavily negroid amixed Beduins. Its caucasoid is mainly mediterranean and a little bit west asian. Semitic speakers are not native of Arabia and came from Northern Mesopotamia/Levant.

Typical South Italian fantasies. My Semitic ancestors did not come from the Levant or Anatolia and mixed with the locals to create the Arabians.

The Med component is the closest to SouthWest Asian component.