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There are two arguments for this that I have seen on here, and I thought I would make a separate thread about it so as to not derail the one already going.
Argument 1: These haplogroups were always part of Greece, and are low in southern Italy due to southern Italians not having as much Greek ancestry as originally presumed.
-Sicilians and Calabrese are very high in J2 and about as high in E1b1b as some parts of Greece.. eastern Sicilians are almost completely J2 and E1b1b and thus the concentration of these haplogroups in that specific region is greater than in Greece.
- R1a1a and I2 are very low in southern Italy and Sicily but together comprise around 40% of modern y-dna of northern Greece.
Argument 2: I2 and R1a1a in Greece represent Slavic and/or Balkan admixture that is relatively recent or at least, is more recent than the Greek colonization of southern Italy. Thus, it'd be impossible for these haplogroups to have made it to Sicily and Calabria and thus represent non-Greek ancestry in modern mainland Greeks.
Which do you think is more likely to be true?
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