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They're a mixture of both. Celtic culture is, obviously, what it is. For the genetic part, there are at least three* sub-racial types that are seen as Celtic. Also, the Haplo-groups that occur in the traditionaly Celtic areas (most of Western Europe, most of that being the British Isles and parts of Spain, Flanders, France, and maybe Belguim) have the Celtic 'signature' haplo-groups.
*The three being Brunn, Keltic-Nordid, and North Atlantid.
Last edited by Argyll; 12-13-2011 at 07:36 PM.
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Both.
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Celts are I2a2 and I2a1a people, now non-existent almost because of post 4th century invasions etc..
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Irish people are not Celtic lol... that's just a nationalism to give themselves some "Antiquity"
Irish people are R1 people just like other R1 people, they are Anglo-Saxons just like Saxons of England.
Celts and Saxons are completely unrelated people.
Celts are not Indo-Europeans.
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The Bell Beakers who the Celts developed from are all R1b and all Indo-European. The Celts only emerged approximately 2,000 years ago after the R1b and Steppe explosion so explain your theory? You've made other claims about Celts which are easy to disprove. Are you being trollish?
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Source. Irish were in Ireland long before the Anglo-Saxon invasions of the 5th Century which mostly affected England anyway. The Irish at the time were creating the Dal Riata kingdom and doing some raiding themselves. They were called the Scoti by the Romans.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scoti
Have you done any research at all?
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No, I am not trolling.
Celtic people according to Greek mythology are related to Eastern Mediterranean people (J, I, E) so it's confusing to mix them with Indo-European haplogrups (R1a, R1b).
I can't separate Germanic People from Celtic (Those two are completely unrelated) However, people are still saying they all belonged to R1 haplogrup (which doesn't make any sense).
Also there was a Celtic migration to Western Balkans, and we have NO R1b whatsoever.
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