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Thread: Were the ancient Romans Nordic?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Brutus View Post
    What you said is somewhat right. The Romans did inhabit in Anatolia and the Balkans. But we do not know where did the Italics (ancestors of Latins and other Italic tribes) come from exactly. The most likely scenario is a group of Steppe invaders crossing to Central Europe and migrating to the south of alps circa 1200 BCE and lastly settling in Italy. They would mix with E1b1b-G2a-T-J2 locals and form an extended family of Italic tribes.

    We can't confirm what the Romans were. They might have been R-U152, but others suggest they were Anatolian farmers who adopted the IE-culture and languages later at the Balkans.

    Another scenario is that the Italics (who were something under R1b), migrated to the Balkans. And from the Balkans, they would mix and intermarry for hundreds-or-thousands of years with the local folk, producing a nation of R1b-J2-E1b1b-G-T men and migrating later to the Italian peninsula through the Adriatic sea or crossing a narrow strait next to the Alps.
    R1b are Indo-Europeans, and Romans are not Indo-Europeans.

    Romans are Romanians, Bulgarians and Turks.

    But as much as that seems impossible to you, it is those people who colonized Italy when it was populated by primitive settlers and animals only.

    Romans were I2, J2 and E1b people... R1b was... close to non-existent back then in Europe.

    Romans came From Syria 7500 years ago in Europe as Pelasgians out of whom Thracians, Celts and other early people formed.

    Indo-Europeans destroyed Roman Empire.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Deli Iskender View Post
    R1b are Indo-Europeans, and Romans are not Indo-Europeans.

    Romans are Romanians, Bulgarians and Turks.

    But as much as that seems impossible to you, it is those people who colonized Italy when it was populated by primitive settlers and animals only.

    Romans were I2, J2 and E1b people... R1b was... close to non-existent back then in Europe.

    Romans came From Syria 7500 years ago in Europe as Pelasgians out of whom Thracians, Celts and other early people formed.

    Indo-Europeans destroyed Roman Empire.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Deli Iskender View Post
    R1b are Indo-Europeans, and Romans are not Indo-Europeans.

    Romans are Romanians, Bulgarians and Turks.

    But as much as that seems impossible to you, it is those people who colonized Italy when it was populated by primitive settlers and animals only.

    Romans were I2, J2 and E1b people... R1b was... close to non-existent back then in Europe.

    Romans came From Syria 7500 years ago in Europe as Pelasgians out of whom Thracians, Celts and other early people formed.

    Indo-Europeans destroyed Roman Empire.
    What about the clear Indo-European culture, language and customs that the Romans have had (Indo-Europeans being R1b-dominated)? Do you have any source as to what you just said????

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    Quote Originally Posted by jobodwannaa View Post
    The real question is, where would these 18 emperors plot in this PCA map?


    Consider that, in Italy, you can potentially find all these phenotypes (30 pics):

    Spoiler!
    More than likely along similar lines with the rest of southerners. The light eyed/hair arguement that is even often used for Renaissance artist has always been a poor attempt from nordicist to attach themselves to Latin cultures. Germanic ancestry even in the North is weak. The arguement is as dumb as claiming dark haired/brown eyed British people are Iberians lol.

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    we wuz romanz

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    Ah yes, "Malalas was an evil Nordicist who made it up", I know this one
    No he wasn't an evil Nordicist,, but he's not credible and he lived 4 to 5 centuries after the people he supposedly knew what looked like that he's writing history about. So unless he cited his sources he's going by hearsay which is not credible.

    He based it on Roman sources and titles, don't act stupid.
    Then show those sources.


    Yes they were.
    Sure, the few legitimate sources we have suggest they were, but not all of them. Julius Caesar was not a Roman emperor but he was probably the most important Roman that ever lived, and he was described as having "Black eyes".


    You are just coping.
    Coping with what? your made up bullshit? You don't have single ancient DNA sample to prove your point. Sorry but there is a burden of proof and you have not met it.



    Italian Bell-Beakers predate the Italo-Celtic migration. They are irrelevant.
    And you know this how? No one knows the precise date of Italo-Celtic or Italic's arrival in Italy. So it's maybe, maybe not.


    Even a bigger dose of coping. Let's start with aDNA =/= phenotype, there are a lot of "Italians" who are racially Nordic.
    Of course there are blonde and blue eyed Italians, but the vast majority of them they don't genetically resemble Northern Europeans, but are more related to other Southern Europeans. Race should be defined by shared ancestry, not a few phenotypical variables. If we went by that the Proto Indo-Europeans were Turks, since they were darker than modern Southern Europeans. But they arent genetically like Turks are they? Nope.


    You are just coping. Unetice culture is Proto-Italo-Celtic, Italo-Celtic peoples who migrated southwards certainly lived in Italy. It's not just "pots and pans", the most of haplogroup R1b mutations are also a proof,
    Until you at the very least can show us genetically Central European people living in Bronze or Iron age Italy via Ancient DNA your hypothesis has no credibility. You just don't like to back up your made up bullshit with proof, that's all. If the Bell Beakers are so genetically variable then so can be the Unetice people, so I see no problem. And Modern R1b carrying Italic speaking Italians are not genetically Central or Eastern European. So there's no reason to think ancient ones were either.


    AND THE LATIN LANGUAGE WHICH IS INDO-EUROPEAN, SO NOT NATIVE TO ITALY.
    Sure and the German language which is Indo-European is not native to Germany, and the Norse languages which are Indo-European are not native to Scandinavia, and hell even the Polish language which is Indo-European is not native to Poland, and so on.
    Last edited by Arch Hades; 12-10-2018 at 08:27 AM.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Brutus View Post
    What about the clear Indo-European culture, language and customs that the Romans have had (Indo-Europeans being R1b-dominated)? Do you have any source as to what you just said????
    What Indo-Europeans?

    We fought Indo-Europeans.

    Germanic and other Indo-European peoples formed their languages in 8- 12th century A.D.

    LOL

    "Indo-European Roman Empire" hahahahhaahhah

    Latin language was formed in Anatolia and Greece.

    Romans are Syrians by a distant ancestry.

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    Everything began here...




    First Indoeuropeans....who moved toward Ukraine and Iran... first semitics who moved towards Iraq and Egypt..

    It was there that Noah's ark ended up his "travel"


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    They were like this
    The Talmud tells us that the only language the Torah could be translated into elegantly is Greek.

    Quote Originally Posted by DarknessWin
    Ancient Greeks eaten raw garlic before battle to rise testosterone

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    Quote Originally Posted by renaissance12 View Post
    Everything began here...




    First Indoeuropeans....who moved toward Ukraine and Iran... first semitics who moved towards Iraq and Egypt..

    It was there that Noah's ark ended up his "travel"

    It's possible we don't know.

    Even going by the Kurgan hypothesis the Indo-European language is just as "non native" to Northern Europe or Poland as it was to Italy.




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