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Thread: Original Turks product of yellow fever?

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    Default Original Turks product of yellow fever?




    So what explains why Turkic people like Kyrgyz and Altains mostly belong to Indo-European R1a but have Mongoloid mtDNA's? I think the only thing that can explain this is early Indo-Iranians procreated with Asian females then left the mothers to raise the children by herself. Original Turks = bastard race?

    Bastard - a person born of parents not married to each other.
    I think aceverdoricky made a good point when he said it is mothers who pass on language and culture.

    Quote Originally Posted by acevedoricky View Post
    Mother. Mothers raise children and through that they pass on the culture. IMO anyways.
    Last edited by d3cimat3d; 09-20-2013 at 03:43 AM.

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    Probably (at least partially) true.
    Spoiler!

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    The story of the Asena/Ashina clan beginings also point to this I think.

    Legend tells of a young boy who survived a battle; a female wolf finds the injured child and nurses him back to health. The wolf, impregnated by the boy, escapes her enemies by crossing the Western Sea to a cave near the Qocho mountains and a city of the Tocharians, giving birth to ten half-wolf, half-human boys. Of these, Ashina becomes their leader and instaures the Ashina clan, which ruled over the Göktürk and other Turkic nomadic empires.
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asena

    The boy who impregnated the wolf was an R1a carrier.

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    Mothers don't pass on culture all the time. Look at Latin-America. the majority of people have european y-dna and a lot have either amerindian or ssa mtdna and the vast majority of people speak western european languages (spanish or portuguese) are basically westernized. if mothers passed on culture, i would be speaking an amerindian language but i dont (i only speak english and spanish).

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    LOL
    That isnt really right...........

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    Quote Originally Posted by American_Hispanist View Post
    Mothers don't pass on culture all the time. Look at Latin-America. the majority of people have european y-dna and a lot have either amerindian or ssa mtdna and the vast majority of people speak western european languages (spanish or portuguese) are basically westernized. if mothers passed on culture, i would be speaking an amerindian language but i dont (i only speak english and spanish).
    The difference here is we are dealing with a nomadic people. Besides, the main reason Spaniards came was to do missionary work, and most aspects of the indigenous people was viewed as un-godly including their language. The scenario I speak of here is the iR1anian doing a one night stand with a Turkic woman than taking off in the morning, leaving her pregnant and a single mother(s).

    Quote Originally Posted by Kiyant View Post
    LOL
    That isnt really right...........
    Plz then, lets hear your expertise! Why is R1a a dominating haplogroup among central Asian Turks when R1a is clearly Indo-European? Do you have a better answer?

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    It's well known Turks were mixed race of Mongoloid/Caucasoid. However once they reached Anatolia and the Caucasus it was diluted because they were already mixed. This why we find traces of Turanid elements in Western Turkic peoples. With the exception of the Gaugauz.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Bogatyr View Post
    The difference here is we are dealing with a nomadic people. Besides, the main reason Spaniards came was to do missionary work, and most aspects of the indigenous people was viewed as un-godly including their language. The scenario I speak of here is the iR1anian doing a one night stand with a Turkic woman than taking off in the morning, leaving her pregnant and a single mother(s).



    Plz then, lets hear your expertise! Why is R1a a dominating haplogroup among central Asian Turks when R1a is clearly Indo-European? Do you have a better answer?
    Pretty easy Turks are/were always a mix nowqhere it stands that the father population of the Turks are Indo-European/Aryan

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    Quote Originally Posted by Kiyant View Post
    Pretty easy Turks are/were always a mix nowqhere it stands that the father population of the Turks are Indo-European/Aryan
    That is impossible because R1a is a western Eurasian marker, there is no way around that.

    Quote Originally Posted by Alberta1 View Post
    Turanid elements in Western Turkic peoples. With the exception of the Gaugauz.
    Gagauzia is loaded with Turanid types.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Bogatyr View Post
    The difference here is we are dealing with a nomadic people. Besides, the main reason Spaniards came was to do missionary work, and most aspects of the indigenous people was viewed as un-godly including their language. The scenario I speak of here is the iR1anian doing a one night stand with a Turkic woman than taking off in the morning, leaving her pregnant and a single mother(s).
    the main reason spaniards went around was to find gold, land, and glory. missionary work was a secondary objective.

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