How did R1a end up so prevalent in both South Asians and Slavs?

[Sikeliot]

Did it enter India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iran etc through a northern wave of Slavic-like people, or was it the other way around?

[arcticwolf]

Let's see, let get this right.

Slavic-like from the north, got mixed over 3500 years with the black race that was there.

or

Black race Slavic-like people moved north and got mixed with the beautiful/pure as a driven show whities (Germanics and Finnics) in mother Europe?

which one sounds more likely?

[Loki]

Did it enter India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iran etc through a northern wave of Slavic-like people, or was it the other way around?

Neither. The Aryan ancestors of both Slavs and Indians invaded both areas, presumably from a middle location in central Asia.

[Arcadefire]

I am not so sure. But if there were to have been some sort of migration, there should have been a train of r1a1 markers between Ukraine and the modern day North India.

[Arcadefire]

THis theory makes more sense imo.

[Loki]

I am not so sure. But if there were to have been some sort of migration, there should have been a train of r1a1 markers between Ukraine and the modern day North India.

Not necessarily, because the middle area is rather sparsely populated central Asian plains, and people did not end up settling there, but moved on.

[alfieb]

Scythians

[Arcadefire]

Not necessarily, because the middle area is rather sparsely populated central Asian plains, and people did not end up settling there, but moved on.

Yea, that could be true aswell.

[Graham]

[Loki]

It could all be of Tocharian origin for all we know.