View Poll Results: Where did IE originate?

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  • West Asia

    27 54.00%
  • Central-East Europe

    23 46.00%
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Thread: Indo-European origins.

  1. #71
    Peyrol
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    Quote Originally Posted by Pallantides View Post
    The proto-Indo Europeans most likely originated on the East European Steppe and expanded from there into Asia and rest of Europe, what do that have to do with "German Aryan master race"?


    This theory is backed by science and archaeological evidence.
    You're referring to the Kurgan culture, and Kazakhstan/southern Russia/Urales aren't definitely "Europe", but central-western Asia.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Protospatha View Post
    He mixed with I2 guys, where is your God now?
    Of course, but he was still 7% South West Asian so his middleastern admix didn't disappear.

  3. #73
    Veteran Member Siginulfo's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Pallantides View Post
    The proto-Indo Europeans most likely originated on the East European Steppe and expanded from there into Asia and rest of Europe, what do that have to do with "German Aryan master race"?


    This theory is backed by science and archaeological evidence.
    This thread is disseminated of proofs I linked, too, but given that no one cares to read it, I'll no read yours, so this conflict will never end. I have more proofs than you.
    .

  4. #74
    Veteran Member Siginulfo's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Joseph Capelli View Post
    Of course, but he was still 7% South West Asian so his middleastern admix didn't disappear.
    Appunto. Cosa dici a fare "where is your God now"?
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  5. #75
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    Nel senso che veniva dal levante ma non aveva influenze West Asian. Quindi il West Asian non era ancora presente nel levante in quel periodo.

  6. #76
    Veteran Member Siginulfo's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Joseph Capelli View Post
    Nel senso che veniva dal levante ma non aveva influenze West Asian. Quindi il West Asian non era ancora presente nel levante in quel periodo.
    Non era presente in grandi quantità nel levante... Il West Asian è connesso al J2 per me, che allora probabilmente aveva solo una piccola influenza West Asian (non puoi dire che non le aveva perché non è possibile saperlo visto che tutto ciò che gli era rimasto della sua madrepatria è quella piccola percentuale Southwest Asian).
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    Quote Originally Posted by Protospatha View Post
    Non era presente in grandi quantità nel levante... Il West Asian è connesso al J2 per me, che allora probabilmente aveva solo una piccola influenza West Asian (non puoi dire che non le aveva perché non è possibile saperlo visto che tutto ciò che gli era rimasto della sua madrepatria è quella piccola percentuale Southwest Asian).
    Si ma gli Italiani del Nord moderni sono per l'appunto 6-7% South West Asian e 10-15% West Asian. Quindi il West Asian è aumentato mentre il South West Asian no. Ergo il West Asian è arrivato dopo, come il Baltic e il Gedrosia.

  8. #78
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    Non possiamo basarci su un solo individuo per predire le admixures di un intero continente, non credi?
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    Quote Originally Posted by Optimus View Post
    Highest diversity of J2 is found in Caucasus and the highest percentage of WestAsian/Caucasus component is found among non-Indo European speaking people in Caucasus so that is totally invalid.Moreover G or specifically G2a has absolutely nothing to do with IE people they were early Neolithic Sardinian like farmers.
    I'm not sure about who were the first Indo-Europeans but...your claim that J2 is found in Caucasus among non Indo-European speaking tribes means nothing. It is a well known fact that peoples of the Caucasus have very small diversity of J2 and G which means that their high percentage of this haplogroups is the result of a founder effect and subsequent isolation. Think about R1b and it's very high frequency in Britain while it's origin is in the Middle East or Anatolia. In fact eastern Anatolia and western Iran seem to be the birth place of many haplogroups (J2, G, R1b and some say even I and R1a!!!)

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    Quote Originally Posted by Protospatha View Post
    The spread of farming matches better the spread of IE languages than the steppe hypothesis.
    So that's why the most Neolithic, lacking in R1a/b areas of Europe preserved non-IE languages the longest is it?
    So what were Rhaetian, Iberian, Basque, Aquitanian, Etruscan and Pelasgian languages then? Mistakes?

    In Northern Europe the only non-IE languages were Finnic (corresponding to haplogroup N area) and perhaps Pictish, although that may have been Celtic.

    Refute please, and none of your bullshit this time.

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