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Nel senso che veniva dal levante ma non aveva influenze West Asian. Quindi il West Asian non era ancora presente nel levante in quel periodo.


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Non era presente in grandi quantità nel levante... Il West Asian è connesso al J2 per me, che allora probabilmente aveva solo una piccola influenza West Asian (non puoi dire che non le aveva perché non è possibile saperlo visto che tutto ciò che gli era rimasto della sua madrepatria è quella piccola percentuale Southwest Asian).
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Non possiamo basarci su un solo individuo per predire le admixures di un intero continente, non credi?
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I'm not sure about who were the first Indo-Europeans but...your claim that J2 is found in Caucasus among non Indo-European speaking tribes means nothing. It is a well known fact that peoples of the Caucasus have very small diversity of J2 and G which means that their high percentage of this haplogroups is the result of a founder effect and subsequent isolation. Think about R1b and it's very high frequency in Britain while it's origin is in the Middle East or Anatolia. In fact eastern Anatolia and western Iran seem to be the birth place of many haplogroups (J2, G, R1b and some say even I and R1a!!!)



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So that's why the most Neolithic, lacking in R1a/b areas of Europe preserved non-IE languages the longest is it?
So what were Rhaetian, Iberian, Basque, Aquitanian, Etruscan and Pelasgian languages then? Mistakes?
In Northern Europe the only non-IE languages were Finnic (corresponding to haplogroup N area) and perhaps Pictish, although that may have been Celtic.
Refute please, and none of your bullshit this time.
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