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You clearly don't know half as much as you think you do and certainly next to nothing when it comes to Scotland, ffs you know so much that you think Scots is spelt with two T's
But please educate me, how can you say unequivocally that there were no Scots in Caledonia? I would love to hear your expert knowledge.
I didn't say a country called Scotland existed back then but the fact is that the name Caledonia and Scotland are synonymous with each other these days as Caledonia was the name that the Romans used for what is now Scotland, just as Hibernia is the name that they gave to Ireland. Or in your opinion are the Irish not allowed to use Ireland and Hibernia synonymously either?
it's quite simple really Hibernia=Ireland, Caledonia=Scotland. The same aproximate landmass.
Compare a map of Scotland and Caledonia. Pretty similar aren't they?
Now begone troll and stop derailing this thread with your bs.
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Last edited by Albannach; 01-19-2018 at 08:28 AM.



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Rethel probably means by language, the Scots were the Irish(in Roman text) and those Scots married into/annexed Pictland who adopted the Irish culture. There was Irish(gaelic), Cumbric(North Welsh), Norn(Norse vikings descent), Pictish & Northumbrian Old English speakers.
The House of Alpin was both King of Picts, then King of Alba, then king of Scots over hundreds of years.
The 11th century Battle of Carham determined the Scottish/English border & Scotland as we know it. The combined united forces of Malcolm II of Scotland(House of Alpin) & Cumbric Owen King of Strathclyde, Conquered South East Scotland from the Northumbrian English of Cumbric and Anglo descent, and Strathclyde became a dependency of Scotland via bloodlines & marriages.
Not long after, the House of Dunkeld became Kings of Scots to consolidate its independent rule for a couple of hundred years. After the House of Dunkeld followed the wars of independence.
Anyway, you had a good discussion.![]()
Last edited by Graham; 01-19-2018 at 10:49 AM.



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He's not talking about language, he just has a bee in his bonnet because I used the term Scotland instead of Caledonia when talking about the Romans.
He seems to think that I was saying Scotland existed in Roman times and I was just trying to explain to him that I know Scotland didn't exist at that point in time but it is quite common for Scotland and Caledonia to be used synonymously these days.
I think he's maybe over anylyzing it and thinking I was referring to Scotland as a political entity rather than just the geographic area of what is now Scotland.
Not quite sure why he is so bothered about something so trivial or why I even bothered replying come to think of it.
Mods should delete these posts as they're off topic for this thread and pretty tedious tbh.
Last edited by Albannach; 01-19-2018 at 01:32 PM.



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European:
West and Central Europe 28%
Scandinavia 23%
Middle Eastern:
Asia Minor 45%
Central/South:
South Central Asia 2%
Trace results:
Northeast Asian < 2%
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