Arpad dynasty DNA (kings of Hungary & Croatia)

[Vlatko Vukovic]

Every single R1 linguist


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Linguistics was stuided a long before genetic-haplogroup-trace existed. So they didn't know surely who is R1 and who is not when they PROVED that Latin is Indo-European language. Just admit this fact. No one can't deny it. You want to make linguistical distance between Roman Empire and Germanic barbarians, but you can't. Their languages has same roots.

[Bosniensis]

Linguistics was stuided a long before genetic-haplogroup-trace existed. So they didn't know surely who is R1 and who is not when they PROVED that Latin is Indo-European language. Just admit this fact. No one can't deny it. You want to make linguistical distance between Roman Empire and Germanic barbarians, but you can't. Their languages has same roots.

Well I can confirm that after Lombards (North Germanic tribe) conquered Italy they have started embracing Latin words into their Germanic language, also Franks (who were Germanic conquerors of Gaul) also started mixing Latin words with their Germanic language (cause Franks are West Germanic Tribe).

I don't know How could they invent Latin when they spoke Germanic languages, and even modern French and Italian are Germanic derivatives... they call them "Romance" cause they are "Latin influenced"

Latin language is dead language, and if they were Romans they would have been speaking Greek not Germanic Romance Languages.

[Bosniensis]

Linguistics was stuided a long before genetic-haplogroup-trace existed. So they didn't know surely who is R1 and who is not when they PROVED that Latin is Indo-European language. Just admit this fact. No one can't deny it. You want to make linguistical distance between Roman Empire and Germanic barbarians, but you can't. Their languages has same roots.

Well I can confirm that after Lombards (North Germanic tribe) conquered Italy they have started embracing Latin words into their Germanic language, also Franks (who were Germanic conquerors of Gaul) also started mixing Latin words with their Germanic language (cause Franks are West Germanic Tribe).

I don't know How could they invent Latin when they spoke Germanic languages, and even modern French and Italian are Germanic derivatives... they call them "Romance" cause they are "Latin influenced"

Latin language is dead language, and if they were Romans they would have been speaking Greek not Germanic Romance Languages.

The closest language to Latin is Romanian, very good Latin grammar.

[Bosniensis]

Roman Opinion of Modern Italians:

[Vlatko Vukovic]

Well I can confirm that after Lombards (North Germanic tribe) conquered Italy they have started embracing Latin words into their Germanic language, also Franks (who were Germanic conquerors of Gaul) also started mixing Latin words with their Germanic language (cause Franks are West Germanic Tribe).

I don't know How could they invent Latin when they spoke Germanic languages, and even modern French and Italian are Germanic derivatives... they call them "Romance" cause they are "Latin influenced"

Latin language is dead language, and if they were Romans they would have been speaking Greek not Germanic Romance Languages.

The closest language to Latin is Romanian, very good Latin grammar.

Bos. "moje", Lat. "mea", German. "mein", English "mine", Irish "mo", Lithuanian "mano", Russian "мой"

You can see that word is of same origin in every of those languages. Then compare it to, for example Turkish: "benim" and you will see that's obviously different branch.

You can see reconstructions of proto-Italic, proto-Celtic, proto-Germani, proto-Balto-Slavic and compare it each other, you will see, that they are indeed of same linguistical branch.

[ButlerKing]

Wrong, R1b brought non-IE AGGLUTINATIVE languages into Europe, Basque and Bashkirs are the last remnants. Celtic is agglutinative, too, a totally non-IE feature. R1a in India is Scytho-Turkic not IE. The same can be said about R1a M458 in Eastern Europe and Finno-Ugric Z280!

ahahahahaha...... how stupid and low intelligence. So you're still on about R1a being Turkic origin after all these years. You're a foolish person. R1a in India predates any Aryan invasion especially long before your fake Scythian-Turkic with R1a.

All modern day Turkish people have haplogroup R1a as a result of predominate Mongoloid males who look like Kyrgyz carrying R1a and interbreeding with the local Anatolian Europoid females.

[Turul Karom]

Ofcourse, all R1b /R1a ultimately come from the east/steppe.

Did you read new paper about Langobards in Panonnia and Italy ? They had lot of R1b U106.

It's refreshing to hear the accurate statements about R1b and R1a. I cannot say I study all of R1 haplogroups, but all paperwork I find of R1b U106 shows it in Kazakhstan as stated and spreading westward. I'm not certain why they need to call it "Germanic" despite that it is found in the areas today of Germany and Netherlands the most. Oh well, hopefully these terms will be reevaluated as more people realize different ethnic groups had different haplogroups. Turkic people alone have a large diversity of them, and I'm talking about pre-settlement, not just today.

I have only briefly looked those studies. I will dive deeper now. What are your thoughts on the Langobards and R1b U106?

[Vlatko Vukovic]

R1a in India predates any Aryan invasion

Why Indians are trying to prove that Aryan invasion never happened? Why is that fact problem for India?

[ButlerKing]

Why Indians are trying to prove that Aryan invasion never happened? Why is that fact problem for India?

Firstable some Europeans geneticist believe " out of India " theory also the world highest R1a can be found only in India reaching 82% and Indians made a better effort spread R1a. Turks on the other hand heavy Mongoloid admixture and their are many burials of Mongoloid males and Europoid females in Central Asia and Siberia but guess what ? those males carried R1a from their Scythian ancestors and all of this predates the existence of Turkish Turks by a 1000+ years when they are already part Mongoloid. Even if a Aryan invasion existed it would have happened 8000 years ago and were all heavily admixed with South Asian DNA meaning North Indians have been North Indians in the past decades of millenniums on the other hand Turkish Turkish received R1a during the Oghuz invasion of of Turkey.


All western Eurasian haplogroup in Cambodians came from Indians and the proof is in the fact they also have typical south Asian admixture

South Asian mtDNA map so any Indian R1a in Southeast Asia came from North Indians.

[Jana]

It's refreshing to hear the accurate statements about R1b and R1a. I cannot say I study all of R1 haplogroups, but all paperwork I find of R1b U106 shows it in Kazakhstan as stated and spreading westward. I'm not certain why they need to call it "Germanic" despite that it is found in the areas today of Germany and Netherlands the most. Oh well, hopefully these terms will be reevaluated as more people realize different ethnic groups had different haplogroups. Turkic people alone have a large diversity of them, and I'm talking about pre-settlement, not just today.

I have only briefly looked those studies. I will dive deeper now. What are your thoughts on the Langobards and R1b U106?

It's possible that basal U106 was found in Kazakhstan, but are you sure it isn't from Volga Germans that were deported to Kazakhstan by Soviets ?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Germans_of_Kazakhstan

Most of them are the offspring of Volga Germans, who were deported to the then Soviet republic of Kazakhstan from the Volga German Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic soon after the Nazi German Invasion during World War II. Large portions of the community were imprisoned in the Soviet labor camp system.

I think R1b U106 among Langobards not suprise