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Thread: So Celts were North Europeans after all?

  1. #171
    Veteran Member XenophobicPrussian's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Creoda View Post
    With your model of Celts as Southern French like, roughly how much genetic impact do you believe early unmixed Celts had in the following places?

    1. Northernmost France/Belgium/Southern Netherlands (Belgae territory)
    2. Southern Britain
    3. Ireland
    4. Iberia
    Well, here's my go to model for Western Europeans+new Swiss samples. Every single sample labeled Celtic has their closest distance to a N. Iberian or S. French population. I still use Collegno_o1 to represent Imperial Romans in my go to model over Imperial_Rome because the Imperial_Rome sample was likely too southern shifted for the average Italian colonist, a plurality of samples were Cyprus like, not to mention all the literal fresh off the boat MENA immigrants, South Italian-Greek islander seems more about right to me. Based on K36 results south of the Rhine Dutch are pretty different from all other Dutch and Flemish are pretty different from Walloons, so there's definitely some regional variation there, but those pops aren't on G25.

    model(same model for all the pops, if you use the model yourself I recommend using DEU_MA as individuals rather than the average, not a good idea comparing averages of pops vs individuals of pops, I was just too lazy):
    Spoiler!


    Target: English_Cornwall
    Distance: 1.2712% / 0.01271192
    43.4 Pre-Celtic-Briton/Beaker
    29.6 Germanic
    27.0 Celtic
    (darkest eyed British Isles pop scores the most S. French-like Celt, coincidence?)

    Target: English
    Distance: 1.1496% / 0.01149641
    45.2 Pre-Celtic-Briton/Beaker
    34.0 Germanic
    19.2 Celtic
    1.6 Italic

    Target: Irish
    Distance: 1.3893% / 0.01389258
    72.6 Pre-Celtic-Briton/Beaker
    16.4 Germanic
    11.0 Celtic

    Target: Dutch
    Distance: 1.0855% / 0.01085496
    71.2 Germanic
    15.0 Celtic
    13.8 Pre-Celtic-Briton/Beaker

    Target: Belgian
    Distance: 0.8557% / 0.00855729
    35.8 Germanic
    24.8 Pre-Celtic-Briton/Beaker
    23.6 Celtic
    8.6 Italic
    7.2 ImperialRoman

    Target: French_Nord
    Distance: 0.8087% / 0.00808733
    34.2 Celtic
    28.8 Germanic
    21.6 Pre-Celtic-Briton/Beaker
    8.6 ImperialRoman
    6.8 Italic

    Target: Spanish_Castilla_La_Mancha
    Distance: 0.9247% / 0.00924716
    39.8 Celtic
    25.0 Iberia_Central_BA
    17.4 ImperialRoman
    8.0 Italic
    5.0 Mozabite
    4.8 Pre-Celtic-Briton/Beaker


    Quote Originally Posted by SharpFork View Post
    I don't believe that Celts were 45-50% Steppe, rather I imagine they were exactly midway between Italics/Iberians and pre-Celtic Britons and Scandinavians, that is around 40% Steppe, if that were the case the homeland model for Celtic expansion would work better, although obviously there is no inherent reason why it should.

    The "favoring" Italic bit was referring to all the models, despite you using Italic and Celtic sample very close to one another you ended up with Central and Southern French scoring 30+% Italic, that's what I mean by "favoring", for some reason the model prefers Etruscans to the Swiss/Lech samples.


    Empuries is basically on the French-Spanish border, if the locals were not Celts I think they can say something about how Southern French Celts looked and to me it would be surprising if Celts/Celtized southern France ended up looking more Southern than those N-E Iberians.


    I'll try to look more into the archeology of early Hallstatt to understand better how it expanded, at least we can agree that the early Celtic expansion must have involved a fair amount of assimilation to preserve at least partially the northerness of Northern France and the British isles and to even spread it to Southern France.

    Did you consider any other theory on how Celts spread outside the classical Hallstatt-La Tene theory?


    My model was just to compare using northern and non-northern samples for Celts, I just wanted to show that both concepts fail at explaining both Northern France and the Alpine region in one single swoop.


    I based my claim on ancient components based model, when you use later ones for some reason the non-European adxmiture becomes more evident. I noticed it some time ago with Iberian models already but I'm not sure why G25 works like this.


    You are not wrong but the problem with Rome_Imperial it's that it's a bit of an abstract proxy, because we can safely say that within Italy it was an extreme outlier that in effect didn't directly influence all of the territories you showed(especially not Northern Italy) while on the other hand more MENA populations directly influenced the gene pool of northern Roman territories somewhat, I'm not sure how the models would look if we adjust for using iron age North Africans and Anatolians/Levantines.


    I don't know much about Y-DNA, but didn't we find E around Bronze age Europe?



    I mean how do we explain Empuries1? The 3 non northern samples and BylanyA111 are already 34-38% Steppe and given how modern France looks, having early Celts be 30-35% Steppe implies that there was little replacement insofar as Northern France goes, or maybe Celtic was spread into southern France after the mixing and Celtization of Northern France(EDIT:like you said, I reply non-chronologically, don't mind this entire part).

    BTW this leads me to question, were Basque at time basque-like themselves? All Iberian samples are quite a bit less Steppe, although not especially so.
    Maybe the Empuires samples were even all Celts, it's still silly, imo, to use samples from Iberia instead of from the actual Alps, regardless of age. If anything the older age of the Alpine samples should make them prefer any newer Italic samples but they don't. I do not disagree with late period Alpine Celts being 34-40% steppe. The only thing I disagree with is people with however much % steppe N. French have making up the average of people in the Hallstatt/La Tene period Alps.

    No samples from the Basque area, but as far as I know, Iberia, from the North-East all the way to Portugal, was Basque-like pre-Celtic/Roman invasions, going on PCA plot position. Not just "around Basque", but very specifically Basque. Celts likely shifted them north as Empuires shows but North Africans and Imperial Romans back down to modern Iberians. Southern France clearly got more southern via Imperial Roman admixture, perhaps even modern Spanish, but may also likely have extra northern admixture from post-medieval northern French migrating, etc, which can explain why they still cluster around my hypothesized Celts. It's like N. Italians, they are almost identical to Etruscans but obviously they are not 100% Etruscan, nowhere close to it, despite circumstances of later migrations making them extremely similar.

    E has been found in neolithic Europe, nearly all of it in the south-east, nearly all of it the specific clade E-V13, and still in tiny tiny amounts, nowhere close to the rate modern Europeans have it. J has even been found in EHGs and Yamnaya, that does not mean the vast majority of modern European J isn't from later Middle-Eastern migrations.

    I believe La Tene areas in N. France and Belgium are dated older to anywhere else in France(but of course oldest are in La Tene/Switzerland) along the Rhine, maybe that supports Alpine Celts moving north first before they spread to southern France/Iberia.

    Quote Originally Posted by Creoda View Post
    Yes, well, Occam's razor and all that. It could well be the case, certainly for places like Scotland or Ireland where any non-NW European input seems a bit small to affect a major language/cultural change directly.
    The Celtic speakers that crossed the English straight definitely weren't S. French like, they undoubtably picked up admixture from the Rhine area/NW France area, a region which I do think was N. French-like, if not even more northern similar to England/Scotland MBA/LBA, so while English/Irish may show low amounts of S. French-like admixture(don't forget the case of elite language conquest in Hungary/Finland btw), that wasn't the entire % of the population movement by people who spoke the language.

    Quote Originally Posted by SharpFork View Post
    You must agree that it's peculiar that population as far south as Latium had as much Steppes people on the other side of the Alps, you can understand the skepticism.
    The Celts were pretty civilized and urbanized for their time, I would be more surprised if they were overwhelmingly Bell Beaker descended rather than heavily neolithic farmer. The Celtic language is literally closer linguistically to Italic than it is to Germanic. Keep in mind back then Latium or anywhere in Italy should really be considered the same thing as northern Italy, Slovenia, etc geographically, the Mediterranean sea used to be a barrier between gene flow, not a conduit. It's not really that far fetched for populations on both sides of a mountain range(albeit big) to be pretty similar(Celts were more northern anyway, again I'm not arguing for the Celt average to be around N. Iberians lol, the distance between Iberians and S. French is pretty big).

    There's also one important point I forgot earlier, populations like Czechs, Slovaks, southern Poles show this southern shifted Celt signal. Are we really going to say Czechs and Poles have Italic and Roman admixture now?
    Last edited by XenophobicPrussian; 04-21-2020 at 06:37 PM.
    The Guanche skulls as a whole are unlike those of modern European Mediterraneans, and resemble northern European series most closely, especially those in which a brachycephalic element is present, as in Burgundian and Alemanni series.
    divided them into clearly differentiated types, which include a Mediterranean, a Nordic, a "Guanche," and an Alpine. The "Guanche" accounts for 50 per cent of the whole on the four islands of Teneriffe, Gomera, Gran Canaria, and Hierro; the Nordic for 31 per cent, the Mediterranean for 13 per cent, and the Alpine
    oldschool anthropology

  2. #172
    Senior Member Raizen's Avatar
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    btw, have you guys read the newest paper on celtic linguistics? they propose Celtic from France. that brings up new possibilities of models for our discussion.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Raizen View Post
    btw, have you guys read the newest paper on celtic linguistics? they propose Celtic from France. that brings up new possibilities of models for our discussion.
    Please not that site, the guy that believes CWC was Uralic speaking...

    I guess at least he allows us to jump over the paywall.

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    Quote Originally Posted by SharpFork View Post
    Please not that site, the guy that believes CWC was Uralic speaking...
    i'm referring to the paper he posted, not the opinion of him about it

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    it is weird how carlos quiles talks about 'proto-galaico-lusitanians', when gallaecians were clearly celtic unlike lusitanians. he have some very weird theories.

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    XenophobicPrussian model.

    Code:
    [1] "distance%=2.5792"
    
             Viriato_scaled
    
    Celtic,70
    Italic,15.2
    ImperialRoman,8.4
    Mozabite,5.6
    Iberia_Central_BA,0.8
    Code:
    [1] "1. CLOSEST SINGLE ITEM DISTANCE%"
    
    Celtic:DEU_Lech_EBA_POST_44 @4.671708           
    Celtic:St_Gallen_SX20 @4.799128 
    Celtic:SX18_scaled @4.955601 
    Italic:ITA_Ardea_Latini_IA_RMPR851 @5.063870 
    Celtic:DEU_Lech_MBA_OTTM_151ind2_d @5.474916                                                    
    Celtic:DEU_Lech_EBA_POST_50 @5.537793
    Celtic:CZE_Hallstatt_Bylany_DA111 @5.633017 
    Italic:ITA_Rome_Latini_IA_RMPR1016 @6.488556
    YDNA: R1b-L21 > DF13 > S1051 > FGC17906 > FGC17907 > FGC17866


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    Quote Originally Posted by XenophobicPrussian View Post
    I believe La Tene areas in N. France and Belgium are dated older to anywhere else in France(but of course oldest are in La Tene/Switzerland) along the Rhine, maybe that supports Alpine Celts moving north first before they spread to southern France/Iberia.
    La Tene is the later culture, the spread of Hallstatt would be the one to indicate the spread of Celts into France at least, La Tene is just ramping it up and making it more violent and organized.


    It's not really that far fetched for populations on both sides of a mountain range(albeit big) to be pretty similar(Celts were more northern anyway, again I'm not arguing for the Celt average to be around N. Iberians lol, the distance between Iberians and S. French is pretty big).
    Do you think Celts would be 35% or what % Steppe? Maybe we are talking about technicalities, although I guess that's the entire point of the discussion.

    There's also one important point I forgot earlier, populations like Czechs, Slovaks, southern Poles show this southern shifted Celt signal. Are we really going to say Czechs and Poles have Italic and Roman admixture now?
    Would this southern shift be impossible to achieve if Celts were 40% Steppe as opposed to 30%?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Raizen View Post
    it is weird how carlos quiles talks about 'proto-galaico-lusitanians', when gallaecians were clearly celtic unlike lusitanians. he have some very weird theories.
    Some parts of Galicia are shown as semi-Lusitanian in some maps, it's not his theory but I can't testify its validity.

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    Quote Originally Posted by SharpFork View Post
    Some parts of Galicia are shown as semi-Lusitanian in some maps, it's not his theory but I can't testify its validity.
    but do you think lusitanian and gallaecian are descended from the same iron age proto-language? i think lusitanian is a bell beaker remnant, and gallaecian rather urnfield celtic.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Raizen View Post
    but do you think lusitanian and gallaecian are descended from the same iron age proto-language? i think lusitanian is a bell beaker remnant, and gallaecian rather urnfield celtic.
    The ethnonym Gallaecian makes it kinda obvious what they were but whether or not there were Lusitinians in the territory of Galicia is another quesiton, the 2 languages would have been related anyway so it's hard to tell.

    Edit: Not sure about Bell Beaker remnant, wouldnt it have diverged significantly by the late iron age? Many even debate if it was Celtic, to me it seems unlikely for there to be such controversy if it was so old.

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