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Several days ago, a lady stated a legendary thread and said "The ones who think I2-din is not Slavic, can you please fuck off from this haplogroup." but unfortunately the thread has been deleted. So, my question is what do you think about the origin of I2-din? I think it is of Slavic origin but I have no idea how it is 15-20% in Mesopotamia.
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It's 0% in Mesopotamia and I2a1 is not I2-din. Whose sock account are you? I'll report you to Loki.
Edit. we92 reported to the staff.






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I2 evolved in the Balkans and radiated outward. I2A din either evolved in the Balkans or the Poland area.


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It doesn't exist anywhere in the middle east or north africa, and yes, it is Slavic since it originated in what is now Ukraine and so on not so long ago which geneticists use it as a proxy of Slavic male migrants to the balkans at the early middle ages which Croats, Bosniaks, Serbs and other Southern Slavs have high frequency of such haplogroup and clade. It's not only R1a that ancient Slavs belong to btw.






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