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Thread: Why is France so Alpine?

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    Default Why is France so Alpine?

    More to the point, why does France have such a small amount of Nordid admixture. For such a large area, France seems metrically homogeneous (barring the NE areas where there is a decent swathe of Germanic admixture). As has been commented, it appears that many of those from the Calais still pass better in SE France than across the Channel (although I would still say there is a huge amount of overlap, in terms of facial features, between the English and northern French).
    It appears the nucleus of the Alpine race was in central/eastern France, but it’s more interesting how it became so ubiquitous over such a large area. One would think that northern France would be firmly in Nordid territory owing it’s geographic location. This subject is interesting in the context of the ‘French’ component within the English genomes. It should be common knowledge at this point (even though said findings only go back to 2022) that the English share 30% of their DNA with those skeletal remains in northern France dating back to Iron Age Times (a genetic overlap that is absent amongst the Welsh and Scottish). When this northern French component arrived in England is a frustrating mystery, but it seems most likely it was the result of a series of gradual migrations from across the Channel during the period of the Anglo-Saxon consolidation of power in Britannia (the approximately 400 year period stemming from the large influx of Anglo-Saxons into the British lowlands in the 5th Century to the foundation of England in the 9th). This would have been courtesy of the strong relations the Anglo-Saxon powerbrokers had with their Germanic brethren, the ‘Franks’, from across the Channel. However sporadic these ‘waves’ of migration were (compared to the more robust, almost singular Anglo-Saxon wave), it appears the demographics of those who migrated were reasonably homogeneous; firmly in the Nordid camp. I say this because there is literally no trace of brachycephaly (as a whole) within the English population. There was a source (looking at you Token) that pointed out how Nordid types were more nomadic than Borreby/Alpine types but I can’t find it now. It doesn’t seem unlikely that by sheer coincidence these migrations meant northern France had a permanent dearth of Nordids within the gene pool. Excluding that, it seems difficult for the phenotypical population of an area to change so radically in a period 1,000-1,500 years if there is no immigration to said area.

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    I think i asked the same question once, i have asked at least 15 questions here on the subject of Alpines and my conclusions are that the alpines of France are descended from a darker complexed paleolithic survivor that originated in the region between the Caucasus and the Pamirs, something caused the UP types to shrink, possibly climate as everywhere where alpines live the climate is generally mild, fairly wet and not frigid except for brief periods. I think the climate has helped France retain a larger proportion of alpines and possibly the forested nature of the country.

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    They have Alps

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    Because God decided to be that way.

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