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Nowadays, steppe admixture is the only reason that keep us believing the Beakers spoke an Indo-European language.
However, everything seems to be pointing to the contrary. IE languages spoken in present-day western Europe can be easily explained by later Unetice (Italo-Celtic) and Battle Axe phenomenons, both derived from Corded Ware. Basques, Iberians (the real ones, the Iberii) and Etruscans are and were pure descendants of the local Bell Beaker populace while later IE speakers of these areas shows clear post-Beaker Central European ancestry. And, above all, there is no concrete evidence of a Bell Beaker language anywhere in western Europe.
So what are your reasons to continue believing Bell Beakers spoke Indo-European?
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