Apollonaris

Originally Posted by Odoacer

So pedophiles must learn to control themselves & not act on their deviant desires.

There is no equivalency between pedophilia and homosexuality. Pedophilia is the attraction of an adult for a prepubescent child. Pedophilia is a crime because it is child rape. Homosexuality is an attraction to someone of the same sex. Homosexual sex can be consensual or nonconsensual, just like heterosexual sex. If it is nonconsensual then it should be punished as rape, just as for heterosexuals. If homosexuals desire consensual sexual relationships, then it is nobody's fucking business, even less is it the state's business.

Originally Posted by Odoacer

If that is so, then homosexuals are also capable of learning not to act on their deviant desires.

As an aside, pedophilia can be treated but in all probability cannot be cured.

"It's a myth we can't treat them," says Dr Lea Studer, a psychiatrist and director of the Phoenix Program, an inhospital treatment program for sex offenders at the Alberta Hospital in Edmonton. "It's absolutely not true."

Michael Seto, PhD, a clinical psychologist at the Centre for Addiction and Mental Health in Toronto, agrees. But he cautions that pedophiles can't be cured. "We're moving toward the idea that this is a stable sexual preference," he says. "It's not something that goes away — this is true of them for the rest of their lives."

Can pedophiles' urges be tamed? Gulf of opinion between MDs, public baying for blood, By Gillian Woodford

Again, the difference between pedophilia and homosexuality is that one is an attraction to a prepubescent child and the other is sexual attraction to someone of the same sex. Two very different things. As such, they should not be lumped in together. Period.

Originally Posted by Odoacer

As such, legitimizing "gay marriage" has absolutely zero to do with whether homosexuals are "born that way," & everything rather to do with the sexual ethics of society.

First, who is defining these so-called "ethics of society"? Second, your objection is irrelevant because it seems that society has already rendered its verdict on the ethics of gay marriage and the general acceptable of homosexuality:

There is a gradual cultural shift under way in Americans' views toward gay individuals and gay rights. While public attitudes haven't moved consistently in gays' and lesbians' favor every year, the general trend is clearly in that direction. This year, the shift is apparent in a record-high level of the public seeing gay and lesbian relations as morally acceptable. Meanwhile, support for legalizing gay marriage, and for the legality of gay and lesbian relations more generally, is near record highs.

Americans' Acceptance of Gay Relations Crosses 50% Threshold

So much for your "ethics of society" argument.

Originally Posted by Odoacer

In which case, the "slippery slope" has in fact demonstrably occurred, because homosexuality has only gained the level of acceptance it has as Western society's sexual ethics have become increasingly loose, beginning most perceptibly with easy adultery & divorce.

Please show me the evidence for your assertion of a causal relationship between "easy adultery and divorce" and the acceptance of homosexuality. Otherwise your "slippery slope" argument is fallacious.