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Thread: How Countries in the British Isles Got Their Names

  1. #51
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    Quote Originally Posted by rothaer View Post
    Suebi was an important endonym that was just reported by Tacitus. Again, Suebi were a religious-cultural confederation of various tribes. They were centered around the Semnones in later Brandenburg that kept the Suebi’s most important loction, the sacred grove of the Semnones. Roughly the area of Suebian tribes overlaps with the former GDR. The Baltic Sea was also referred to as the Mare Suebicum.

    No no, High German is unrelated to all this. It emerged with the German sound shift at abt. 700 AD and seems to first have occurred among the Longobards in Northern Italy (implying that the ethnically dying Longobards were the first Germans in a narrow sense!). Before the German sound shift all Germanics spoke unshifted, Low German-like Germanic. The German soundshift is thought to have become evoked by a language contact with Vulgar Latin. It’s all a very secondary thing.
    Do you know which German tribes were involved in the original foundation of the Suebi tribal confederation?

    Those tribes in the GDR ended up migrating south of the Harz at the time the German sound shift took place, no?

    And the High German sound shift occurred among German tribes with similar geography/culture, they are said to have spoken a common language originally (Proto-Elbe Germanic):
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elbe_Germanic

    Marcomanni and Hermanduri are named as Swabian/Suebi tribes, and we can see the modern region of Swabia (named after the Swabian Circle of the HRE) resting in Alemannish territory today.

    Besides Suebi, they were also called Herminones/Irminones. The two terms seem to have been used synonymously until the definition of Swabian kept narrowing down and Irminones ceased to exist as a term.

    Also, on a related note, what's your opinion on the term Ingvaeones applying specifically to the Anglo-Frisian-Saxon group? And Istvaeones being applied specifically to the ancestors of the Dutch/Low Franks?

    Aha! It’s not the name of a particular Germanic god but of a kind of gods. The Germanic gods are divided in Asen and Wanen (in German language, in English it’ll be resembling). So it’s like Ansgar (Oscar), Ansegisil etc. Still the reason for the k in Aesk is unclear to me. Maybe it’s a Frisian-like casual shortening of Ansgar/Oscar?
    It seems the nasalisation (which was only recorded in Old Norse) indicates that it's the feminine form of the name, so Ash would be the masculine/neutral form:

    The corresponding feminine form in Old Norse is ásynja (pl.:ásynjur), formed by the addition of the -ynja suffix, denoting a female form.[8] A cognate word for "female áss" is not attested outside Old Norse, and a corresponding West Germanic word would have been separately derived with the feminine suffixes -inī or -injō.[9]

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%C3%86sir

    It was written in the Frisii Wikipedia arcticle that I had earlier linked:

    „In the 3rd and 4th centuries the population of Frisia steadily decreased, and by the 5th century it dropped dramatically. Archaeological surveys indicate that only small pockets of the original population stayed behind (e.g. in the Groningen coastal marshes).[30] The coastal lands remained largely unpopulated for the next one or two centuries. As soon as conditions improved, Frisia received an influx of new settlers, mostly from regions later characterized as Saxon, and these would eventually be referred to as 'Frisians', though they were not necessarily descended from the ancient Frisii. It is these 'new Frisians' who are largely the ancestors of the medieval and modern Frisians.[5] Their Old Frisian language, however, was more intricately related to Old English spoken by their relatives settling abroad, than to the Old Saxon language spoken by the people staying behind in Germany.“
    Hmm, it says they came from regions that were later called Saxon, not that the New Frisians themselves were called Saxon.

    It was that one, however. The reason for me to call him wannabe was that he and his closer family simply did not traditionally speak Frisian in contrast to the other one. It took me much effort to „press“ out this information from him. He repeatedly avoided answering and eagerly explained to me why my question doesn’t matter.
    There was one user on TA from Groningen who called himself Frisian, and also Saxon and Dutch too at random times. He wasn't an active user and I only saw him posting for less than a week, don't remember his username. He said that most Groningers don't identify as Frisian today cause of their rivalry with the Friesland province, but they are Frisian (despite speaking Saxon). Though I agree with you, it would only make sense if they identified as East Frisian as a regional identity.

    I don’t know but that’s well possible. Now, my point is that the traditional Frisian speaker agreed with him that ”we” are all Saxo-Frisians no matter the language we speak because modern Frisians are disconnected from antique Frisii and in fact Saxons, however Sea Shore Saxons.
    Frisians from Friesland proper probably wouldn't mind if others from historical Frisian lands identified as Frisian cause they can claim their land as part of Friesland then. It's pretty weird that there's the name Friesland exists in parts of Germany (Ostfriesland) and Holland (Westfriesland) despite the fact there have been no Frisian-speakers for many centuries. Even weirder that they're called Frisians in Germany when actual Frisian-speaking Frisians still exist.

    I see what you mean but with my Monnem example I wanted to point out that the question if the name of the town is Mannheim or Monnem is not dependent on the dialect (alone) but on the conservatism of the administration that decides what is the official name.
    Alright.

    OMG. Then it’s even a home made mess…
    I assume they probably calqued the High German hypercorrection into their local Saxon dialect.

    Unfortunately not. The word is mostly considered related to German Anger, which means an agricultural used field. But it doesn’t really convince me.
    I see. Why doesn't it convince you?

    Much is unclear but the derivation of the Ampsivarii from the Ems I consider completely sure. A number of scholars even think that it’s an emendation of Angrivarii because the Romans encountered them at the Ems river. However, the geographic connection to the Ems river is undisputed.
    Could they also be synonymous with the Angrians, Cherusci, etc.? 🤔

    Tulingi are considered Celts, Vangiones are Celts or Germanics and Nemetes are disputed as Germanics. Also, if you look up, where they lived, it was just in a very small area. Admittedly, the province Germania superior was also very small at the turn of times and became much expanded later, partly acrosse the Rhine where Germanics lived but also much to the southwest, were there were no Germanics.
    Hmm, then I guess some tribe from further north that migrated there later.

    All your examples but the Albanian one confirm what I mean. When the Gallo-Romans changed their name to French there had been a strong contribution by Germanic Franks etc.
    I don't see how it's any different from the Eastern [Low] Saxons/Germans calling themselves Prussians (original Prussians were West Baltic). Or the Slavic ancestors of the Slovenes calling themselves Carantanians historically (original Carni were Celtic).

    As for the Bavarians I listed up tribes that ought to be involved after there was no apartheid performed. This makes it very unlikely that the Bavarians are simply a continuation of Markomanns only.
    They would have contribution from other tribes in their ancestry, but the Marcomanni (who themselves were mixed) would be their base. Their language/identity is likely built off the Marcomanni one.

    Theoretically possible. But afaik there was never spoken of Bavarians simultanously with other subtribes, however, there is no such record.

    The Lex Baiuvariorum beside the Agilofinger expressly mentions 5 Bavarian noble families and they to my perception do have somewhat unusual names:

    „Title III: Stipulates the Agilolfings as the leading noble family from which the rulers of Bavaria are chosen. The other noble families explicitly mentioned are: Anniona, Fagana, Hahilinga, Huosi and Trozza (sometimes also spelled "Drozza").“
    I was thinking it could have been a regional subgroup more so than a sub-tribe.

    But I think what most likely happened is they changed their name after establishing themselves in the Bohemia-Bavaria region similar to the German Prussians and Slavic Carantanians. And while living there, the Marcomanni-Bavarii would have absorbed other tribes in the process (such as the Boii).

    True, BUT: The name must have referred to the tribe regardless of what position Bohemia had. Because they were beaten in the west under the name of Markomanni before they went to Bohemia.
    Yes. It would have just changed over time to match the geography like the other two examples I gave, but it originally wouldn't have been like that.

    I personally imagine that Hermanduri are the main contributor to Markomanni that became „frontiersman“ when they became neighours of the Romans at the Rhine river. The tribal Germanic substance of what you describe and what later became named Franconia is unclear. (Btw. the area is considered the origin area of the Celtic Volcae the gave rise to the Germanic term Walah, welsch, which first became a generic name for Celts and later for their Romanised descendants and Romance people in general.) However, this area is a Frankish conquest from the Thuringian Empire.
    But weren't you saying that the Marcomanni and Bavarian connection is tenuous since they have different names? Hermanduri also have a different name.

    As I told, the German dialectal conditions are deeply formed by the German sound shift which is a later development. Hence it’s very hard to destillate earlier differences and connect them to particular tribes. The Franconian and the Thuringian dialects seem related but the deep linguistic trench is towards Bavarian and that indeed suggests a pre German soundshift dialectal difference.
    What are you referring to?

    Translated from the German Wikipedia article on the Thuringi:

    ”There are various hypotheses as to the etymology of the name ‘Thuringians’. The derivation of the name from the Hermundurians, which was common for a long time, as well as the derivation from the Germanic-Celtic Turonians, is now mostly questioned[1].

    Most recently, Wolfgang Haubrichs has made an interpretation on the basis of all known traditions for the Thuringians in late antiquity and the early Middle Ages. His onomastic linguistic analysis, in particular of the spelling, phonology and morphology, revealed that the name Thuringian can be traced back to a Germanic adjective thur- 'strong, powerful, great, rich' with a derivation to ing. It can therefore be assigned to those ethnic names that emphasised the strength and size of the tribesmen, as is the case with the Franks and Alemanni. An etymology from the base Germanic dur- 'hill, elevation' by Jürgen Udolph is - according to Haubrichs - just as impossible from a linguistic point of view as the proposed derivation from the East Germanic 'Terwingi' by Heike Grahn-Hoek[2][3].

    The region north of the Thuringian Forest and Erzgebirge - the settlement area of the Naumburg group (300-60 BC) - was still known to Ptolemy[4] in the second century AD as the ‘home of the Teurians’ (Τευριοχαῖμαι, Teuriochaĩmai). [5] This is the first time that archaeologists from the Saxony-Anhalt State Office for the Preservation of Monuments and Archaeology have linked a local archaeological culture with an ancient folk name[6].“


    Additionally, I read the opinion that the name may be derived from the very small river Thyra, a tributary of the Helme river, in turn a tributary of the Unstrut river, in turn a tributary of the Saale river. At the mouth of the Thyra is the small village Thürungen. But to me the Thyra seems far too small and unimportant.
    I like the theory of it coming from the Germanic adjective thur- the most.

    Thuringians lived in North Germany and not Thuringia during the second century AD, so how the Teurians be referencing them?

    Well, there is the opinion that the notable difference between West Germanic and North Germanic developed because of the Slavic barrier. This makes sense to me. On the other hand this can not explain why a former dialect continuum in the very small permanent Danish-Saxon contact area should have vanished. The loss of this dialect continuum I attribute to the said Danish expansion.
    But Danish and Saxon were dialects of the same language centuries after the Danish expansion happened. So I find it hard to attribute it to that. I think it's just plausible if Schleswig was either depopulated or populated by non-Germanics, that would explain why Danish and Saxon ended up not being part of the same dialect continuum. As you said Slavs lived in that area, but parts of it could have been depopulated as well, which would have limited contact between Saxons and Danes resulting in loss of a proper dialect continuum.

    The settlement conditions for a number of Germanic lands are a conundrum. The current state of archaeology does see confirmed a settlement hiatus of abt. 120 years (550-670 AD) in Mecklenburg-Vorpommern and Brandenburg (not sure about Farther Pomernia) between Germanics and Slavs as I read in a very recent (2016) evaluation of newer archaeological finds.
    I see.

    Yes.

    It’s well possible that the „original Saxons“ as the core of the later Saxons came from North Albingia and landed in the Land Hadeln and there encountered not amused Chauci. But as later the Chauci became Saxons and maybe the knowledge even of their existence vanished, Saxon chronists had a problem to meaningfully tell this story.
    So you agree the North Albingian Saxons displaced a different German tribe, but you just disagree this German tribe was Thuringian?

    Not in detail.

    To my understanding roughly just what is today’s Saxony-Anhalt North of the Harz area (including a protrusion as far as Merseburg in the south-east) was Thuringian and became conquered by Saxons (in 531/534). In fact also the eastern half of what was directly south of the Harz. Imo Thuringians were not pushed away (ruling Thuringian nobility may have been, though) but assimilated and they also became subject of Saxon colonisation. Somewhere I read that Germanic conquests were often performed that way that the conquerer got ceded 1/3 of the arable land. You have interesting smaller colonisation areas there south of the Harz like Friesenfeld (Frisian field) and Hassegau. As the latter is documented as ho(c)hsegau it is considered not derived from Hassians but from Chauci.
    So Altmark and Magdeburg?

    That means you disagree about the location of Runibergun being near Hannover?

    There was a drama following the Longobard conquest of Italy in 568. Alboin had managed to attract also 20,000 Saxons to join his undertaking. After the conquest of Italy these Saxons were very disappointed because the Longobards allegedly broke their promise that these Saxons could live in Italy under their own Saxon law. They returned and wanted back their former land which was in the aforementioned Hassegau. But the new owners were prepared and they totally destroyed the returning Saxons (I guess not the women and children, though). Northeast of the Harz you also have a Nordschwabengau which is somewhat surprising. That are likely no Swabians from Southern Germany but kind of original Suebians that withdrew from Brandenburg in the context of the Slavic expansion. Interestingly, the noble dynasty of Ascanians that was very important in the later German Ostsiedlung hails from the Nordschwabengau and is said to be Swabian. Did they have any memory and conciousness about that they made a kind of re-conquista?
    Are you referring to when they expanded eastwards? Probably not. Most of the Germans in the Ostsiedlung weren't even from Nordschwabengau, but from the Netherlands and Rhineland, which weren't really historically Swabian. It's interesting to see that name exist in the Northeast that late. How did Northeast Germany later become [Low] Saxon after being Swabian?

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    Quote Originally Posted by rothaer View Post
    That Upper Franconia in today's Bavaria is a Frankish conquest from the Thuringians in 531/534.
    What about the screenshot I posted (in the post you're quoting) saying Franks conquered it from Alemanns?

    I don't know where all battles between Franks and Allemanns took place but the main battle was in 496 at Tolbiac / Zülpich which is west of the Rhine river even: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Tolbiac
    Most of the battles were in Rhineland and Hesse, but Upper Franconia was also an important place where they battled.

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    Quote Originally Posted by rothaer View Post
    The aforementioned Heike Grahn-Hoek has published a paper on that question and rejects it.
    On what grounds?

    I currently (since 1995) live in Western Mecklenburg and my ancestry is like this: https://www.theapricity.com/forum/sh...=1#post7719679
    Explains why you just put 'Eastern German' as your ancestry then, I was wondering why you chose such a broad term.

    Do you guys still speak [Low] Saxon in Mecklenburg?

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    Quote Originally Posted by rothaer View Post
    Is the member -folk in Norfolk and Suffolk meaning folk the same way like the German(ic) word thiud, which is the basis of Deutschland (folk land)?

    We have Svitjod in old Swedish meaning Sweden and etymologically - Swe-thiod - meaning Swea-folk. Whether the found in Romania Gothic runic inscription Guthiuda in the perception of Goths also meant Gothic land or just Gothic people as it literally means is unclear.
    English folk is cognate to German Volk and Swedish folk.

    Deutsch in German and tjod in Swedish are cognate with the Old English theod, which would have evolved into theed in Modern English. In English, this word meant "nation," "folk/people (as a collective noun i.e. ethnicity or tribe)," or as an augmentative meaning "great."

    Even today, the French loanword nation refers to both "ethnicity" and "country" in Modern English. So it is anyways somewhat similar in meaning to folk, but still has an overall different broader meaning. Examples of its usage in Old English include theodherpath (public road), theodgestreon (great treasure), theodcwen (great queen i.e. empress), theodfeond (arch enemy), theodfruma (national/people's ruler i.e. lord), theodguma (national/people's chief), theodhere (national army).

    And as I mentioned in an earlier post in this thread, Engle theod was used by King Alfred for ethnic Englishmen.

    Though I suppose folk in the context of Norfolk and Suffolk could be said to have been used like that.

    Another word for "folk/people" (in the collective sense) that was very similar in meaning to theod in Old English was the word leod (which would have evolved into leed in Modern English).

    I also recall reading that by the Middle English period, theed (or thede) came to mean specifically "nation" or "country."

    It was only in Mainland West Germanic languages (including Dutch until the 20th century) where it was used in a specifically ethnic sense. In other Germanic languages, it broadly meant "ethnicity" or "nation" rather than in reference to a specific group.
    Last edited by Mingle; 04-28-2024 at 06:09 PM.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    What about the screenshot I posted (in the post you're quoting) saying Franks conquered it from Alemanns?
    It's invisble to me. I only can see that there is something if I quote it but I can not access the content.
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    Quote Originally Posted by rothaer View Post
    It's invisble to me. I only can see that there is something if I quote it but I can not access the content.
    Weird... I'll post it again.


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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Do you know which German tribes were involved in the original foundation of the Suebi tribal confederation?
    Well, the Semnones with their sacred grove were kind of like the Saudi Arabians in Islam with their Mekka. So they must have been part of the origin. But there is to my knowledge no earlier news than the information by Tacitus where he tells which tribes are Suebians. Whether Longobards were Suebs is disputed.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Those tribes in the GDR ended up migrating south of the Harz at the time the German sound shift took place, no?
    No, the German sound shift arrived kind of half a millienum after the Migration period at the Harz. The court books (Schöppenbücher) of the city of Halle an der Saale were still in Low German in the 14th century, which would imply a sound shift closer to a millenium later.

    How exactly the original settlement areas of the Suebians became essentially emptied is a conundrum. Likely the Justinianic plague was devastating but all this was outside of the horizon of Roman and Greek historians so there is no information.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    And the High German sound shift occurred among German tribes with similar geography/culture, they are said to have spoken a common language originally (Proto-Elbe Germanic):
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elbe_Germanic
    No, the distribution went completely unrelated to such things. I personally think - I never read it anywhere - that the sound shift eventually stopped at the borders of the proto Germanic areas (before the expansion in former Celtic areas) of Germania magna. It may sound weird but I assume genetically founded tendencies in casual pronouncing. There’s too much time in between for being explained by language contact (within former Germania magna).

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Marcomanni and Hermanduri are named as Swabian/Suebi tribes, and we can see the modern region of Swabia (named after the Swabian Circle of the HRE) resting in Alemannish territory today.
    Yes.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Besides Suebi, they were also called Herminones/Irminones. The two terms seem to have been used synonymously until the definition of Swabian kept narrowing down and Irminones ceased to exist as a term.
    Well possible. But I’m not aware of who used the terms you refer to. The Suebian endonym was used from the first beginning with pride obviously. You encounter it also at antique grave stones of Germanic individuals that were buried in a Roman area.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Also, on a related note, what's your opinion on the term Ingvaeones applying specifically to the Anglo-Frisian-Saxon group? And Istvaeones being applied specifically to the ancestors of the Dutch/Low Franks?
    This is afaik how these terms are applied to tribes and areas. But I admit to never having dug deeper in that terminology.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    It seems the nasalisation (which was only recorded in Old Norse) indicates that it's the feminine form of the name, so Ash would be the masculine/neutral form:

    The corresponding feminine form in Old Norse is ásynja (pl.:ásynjur), formed by the addition of the -ynja suffix, denoting a female form.[8] A cognate word for "female áss" is not attested outside Old Norse, and a corresponding West Germanic word would have been separately derived with the feminine suffixes -inī or -injō.[9]

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%C3%86sir
    Yes, okay.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Hmm, it says they came from regions that were later called Saxon, not that the New Frisians themselves were called Saxon.
    Correct.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    There was one user on TA from Groningen who called himself Frisian, and also Saxon and Dutch too at random times. He wasn't an active user and I only saw him posting for less than a week, don't remember his username. He said that most Groningers don't identify as Frisian today cause of their rivalry with the Friesland province, but they are Frisian (despite speaking Saxon). Though I agree with you, it would only make sense if they identified as East Frisian as a regional identity.
    That must be him, yes. Iirc Finn was his username.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Frisians from Friesland proper probably wouldn't mind if others from historical Frisian lands identified as Frisian cause they can claim their land as part of Friesland then. It's pretty weird that there's the name Friesland exists in parts of Germany (Ostfriesland) and Holland (Westfriesland) despite the fact there have been no Frisian-speakers for many centuries. Even weirder that they're called Frisians in Germany when actual Frisian-speaking Frisians still exist.
    True with the little correction that the Ostfriesen afaik don’t call themself Friesen but Ostfriesen just. While Nordfriesen are also Friesen (which is linguistically true).

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    I assume they probably calqued the High German hypercorrection into their local Saxon dialect.
    Yep.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    I see. Why doesn't it convince you?
    I find it too unfitting to the very different etymology of other Germanic tribe names in spite of having Holsaten in mind.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Could they also be synonymous with the Angrians, Cherusci, etc.?
    With Angrians, yes.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Hmm, then I guess some tribe from further north that migrated there later.
    I never heard of any but much later the Burgundians.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    I don't see how it's any different from the Eastern [Low] Saxons/Germans calling themselves Prussians (original Prussians were West Baltic). Or the Slavic ancestors of the Slovenes calling themselves Carantanians historically (original Carni were Celtic).
    Also in these cases there was no one-to-one continuity of the people. In contrast, the Carantaian lands did not even overlap with later Slovene areas and the Prussian name was just taken as a trick by the marchgrave (an elector) of Brandenburg to deceive other Germans and to try to get accepted to be called a king within the German empire. (He was king of Prussia like the Elector of Saxony was also the king of Poland. But both these lands were outside of the German Empire and it did not justify to be called a king in Germany. The other dukes were very thorough with that. After all had got used to that the Elector of Brandenburg also was called the king in Prussia, the latter step by step dropped being called Elector of Brandenburg. He first changend IN Prussia to OF Prussia and eventually changed the name of his state. And it worked the others could finally be tricked to accept him being called a king in Germany.)

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    They would have contribution from other tribes in their ancestry, but the Marcomanni (who themselves were mixed) would be their base. Their language/identity is likely built off the Marcomanni one.

    I was thinking it could have been a regional subgroup more so than a sub-tribe.

    But I think what most likely happened is they changed their name after establishing themselves in the Bohemia-Bavaria region similar to the German Prussians and Slavic Carantanians. And while living there, the Marcomanni-Bavarii would have absorbed other tribes in the process (such as the Boii).
    That can be assumed, yes. The German Wikipedia article on the Marcomanni states as for their end (translated):

    „Dissolution of the tribal structure

    Around 396, Stilicho resettled parts of the Marcomanni, under the husband of Queen Fritigil, who was known as dux, in what would later become eastern Austria and western Hungary (Pannonia) as allies of the Romans. Fritigil was in correspondence with Bishop Ambrose of Milan and brought about the Christianisation of the Marcomanni[22] The resettled Marcomanni found themselves under the rule of the Huns from 433-451 and fought on their side on the Catalaunian fields, from which they never returned to Pannonia. The Marcomanni who remained in Bohemia were absorbed into the immigrating Slavs in the 7th century (last traces of Germanic settlement in Bohemia) and possibly contributed to the emergence of the Bavarians.“


    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    But weren't you saying that the Marcomanni and Bavarian connection is tenuous since they have different names? Hermanduri also have a different name.
    It is not too tenuous to establish a connection - there certainly was one - but to establish an identity. There were so many different Germanics around and they would have had to show up beside Bavarians but they don’t. This is why I assume the Bavarians to be merged by all that.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    What are you referring to?
    I refer to that Franconian and Hessian and Thuringian are more resembling each other than is Bavarian. That dialect is pretty different. And that is not due to the German sound shift because all those dialects are sound shifted.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    I like the theory of it coming from the Germanic adjective thur- the most.
    Me too. But we should keep that spectacular Grahn-Hoek theory in mind for checking it against all what we get to know.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Thuringians lived in North Germany and not Thuringia during the second century AD, so how the Teurians be referencing them?
    At that time Thuringians didn’t exist. They formed in ”greater” Thuringia at the beginning of the 5th century. The Teurians are just referred to as an assumed source of the name of the Thuringians (by those who think so).

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    But Danish and Saxon were dialects of the same language centuries after the Danish expansion happened.
    It’s a matter of the definition of a language. However, afaik all scholars agree on that the expanded Danish language was to be assigned to North Germanic.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    So I find it hard to attribute it to that. I think it's just plausible if Schleswig was either depopulated or populated by non-Germanics, that would explain why Danish and Saxon ended up not being part of the same dialect continuum. As you said Slavs lived in that area, but parts of it could have been depopulated as well, which would have limited contact between Saxons and Danes resulting in loss of a proper dialect continuum.
    That is possible and can no be ruled out. But I have the impression that you do not see my point with the compression of a dialect continuum causing its destruction.

    F. i. you have a rural dialect continuum from Vienna to Amsterdam. This means that the pesants in every village can well speak und understand the peasants in the neighboring villages as they speak essentially identical. But if you now would expand the Bavarian dialect 400 km towards Amsterdam you would be somewhere at Aachen and Bavarian peasants would there not really understand what the Aachen peasants speak an vice versa. I state that this happened when the linguistic Danes expanded to Jutland and down to Schleswig.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    So you agree the North Albingian Saxons displaced a different German tribe, but you just disagree this German tribe was Thuringian?
    Simplified yes. But I don’t think that anyone became displaced, except maybe ruling nobles. I think that they then will have became politically „Saxonised“. I don’t state that I do belive that it was like that but if we consider that Land Hadeln story representing some deeper truth, this is how it could have been.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    So Altmark and Magdeburg?
    Yes. (But not my change of mind below.)

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    That means you disagree about the location of Runibergun being near Hannover?
    I had claimed that this is uncertain and that I don’t believe it. There is not just that Ronneburg close to Hannover but also a Ronneburg at Nebra and a Ruhnsburg at the Hainleite. But after I now read more about it, I have to change my mind. I now also assume Runibergun to be southwest of Hannover.

    This implicates that indeed all of Eastfalia will have been Thuringian.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Are you referring to when they expanded eastwards? Probably not. Most of the Germans in the Ostsiedlung weren't even from Nordschwabengau, but from the Netherlands and Rhineland, which weren't really historically Swabian.
    Absolutely correct. I only referred to the noble dynasty that was called Ascanians and that came to hold many high positions within the Ostsiedlung including becoming the marchgrave of Brandenburg. I found the assumed history of these Nordschwaben and the fact that the Ascanians happened to hail from that „micro” Nordschwabengau thinkworthy.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    It's interesting to see that name exist in the Northeast that late. How did Northeast Germany later become [Low] Saxon after being Swabian?
    First of all it wasn’t that far northeast. It was directly bodering the Harz mountains in the Northeast and it was pretty small. If those Swabians were remants of the Suebs from their original home land then anyhow kind of 95% of that homeland had got lost with the Slavic expansion. This little Nordschwabengau was demographically completely unimportant.

    Low Saxon then spread by Low Saxon colonists and they beeing the majority of the various German settlers.

    But keep in mind that the Suebian language must not have been much different. The Nordschwaben are that old that they anyhow spoke an un-soundshifted Low German-like dialect!
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Weird... I'll post it again.

    Okay, thanks.

    I find no support for that what is Upper Franconia today has been Alemannic. But other parts may have been and in particular notable parts of what was the duchy of Franconia at abt. 1000 AD - see map - may indeed have been Alemannic before.



    Today's Upper Franconia is part of what is the Bavarian Nortgowe in that map.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Explains why you just put 'Eastern German' as your ancestry then, I was wondering why you chose such a broad term.
    Yep.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Do you guys still speak [Low] Saxon in Mecklenburg?
    The majority understands it but only pretty few speak it. In this context I'm mainstream.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    English folk is cognate to German Volk and Swedish folk.

    Deutsch in German and tjod in Swedish are cognate with the Old English theod, which would have evolved into theed in Modern English. In English, this word meant "nation," "folk/people (as a collective noun i.e. ethnicity or tribe)," or as an augmentative meaning "great."

    Even today, the French loanword nation refers to both "ethnicity" and "country" in Modern English. So it is anyways somewhat similar in meaning to folk, but still has an overall different broader meaning. Examples of its usage in Old English include theodherpath (public road), theodgestreon (great treasure), theodcwen (great queen i.e. empress), theodfeond (arch enemy), theodfruma (national/people's ruler i.e. lord), theodguma (national/people's chief), theodhere (national army).
    That's interesting. I never geard of anything like theodguma. In German you have Bräutigam, Swedish brudgum (does English Bridegroom with that r have an other etymology??), where this old word gum for man is preserved. It shares its root with Latin homo. It's also said to be preserved in Swedish gumma for an old woman.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    And as I mentioned in an earlier post in this thread, Engle theod was used by King Alfred for ethnic Englishmen.

    Though I suppose folk in the context of Norfolk and Suffolk could be said to have been used like that.
    Yes and I never encountered the folk/volk word in that usage but it follows the theod usage.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    Another word for "folk/people" (in the collective sense) that was very similar in meaning to theod in Old English was the word leod (which would have evolved into leed in Modern English).
    You have it in modern German as Leute and in Low German as Lüüd. But remarkably you also have it in Slavic (Polish ludzie) and seemingly since the earliest times also in names, cf Liudewit, like also Germanics have it. I guess it's a common root rather than a very early loan.

    Quote Originally Posted by Mingle View Post
    I also recall reading that by the Middle English period, theed (or thede) came to mean specifically "nation" or "country."

    It was only in Mainland West Germanic languages (including Dutch until the 20th century) where it was used in a specifically ethnic sense. In other Germanic languages, it broadly meant "ethnicity" or "nation" rather than in reference to a specific group.
    It - with out prefixes likel Engle, Sve etc. - will have developed an ethnic meaning by the common own folks encountering foreign people. You can say that it's an expression of alienation/distancing to not include the foreign people under the theod term. Doublessly theod was a super tribal category but seemingly it was not applied to arbitrary folks.

    And maybe it - regardless its etymology - was an endonym for Germanic speakers already when it was used as Gothiuda, Svitjod and Engle theod? The crucial question would be whether it was ever used in a composition like Walah theoda.
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