Originally Posted by
Kaspias
This would make sense. But how are we going to explain the process of being more Iranic of Oghuz? Shouldn't they be in the same parallel with Göktürk samples? I mean there should be an interaction with Iranic between the period Göktürk and Oghuz Yabgu. Was there?
It may be the reason why see no Iranian on North is they didn't take migration after the settlement of the Turks who formed Beyliks. For the rest of the regions, Timurid and Mongol invasions pushed Turkmen tribes who settled in Eastern Anatolia and Iran to the West, this should be a source for Iranian admixture in Anatolia. Or maybe something else. But it is clear to me that there were neither mass Iranian mixing nor first Turk settled was carrying Iranian. That admixture should be introduced to the gene pool with further waves of migrations. Same applies to Balkan Turks:
And check this result(regular Balkan Turk)
Admix Results (sorted):
# Population Percent
1 Caucasus 26.47
2 North_European 22.23
3 Atlantic_Med 20.59
4 Gedrosia 9.55
5 Southwest_Asian 8.88
6 Siberian 6.27
7 East_Asian 2.64
8 South_Asian 2.31
9 Northwest_African 0.63
10 East_African 0.41
These first Turks should be outnumbered by natives which caused such reduced East Eurasian admixture. This is also one of the reasons why Balkan Turks have a small amount of East Eurasian. On the other hand, I predict almost half of these early Turks already died during wars, because they were the only manpower of Turks in Balkans during that time period. After all further waves brought fresh East Eurasian to the region and introduced Iranic.
