I2a in Greece from Slavic Slave Trade

[Geni]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crimean_Khanate

It says here that 2 million people from the Ukraine were shipped as slaves to the Ottoman Empire and the Middle East:

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Could that explain the presence of I2a Dinaric-North in Greece?

Clar ...in Greece and in Albania , not illusions, the albanians with I2a have slavic ancestry...

[JQP4545]

Also why would slaves leave behind a paternal marker? You think slaves were doing a lot of fucking of local women

The slaves were probably mostly female, sent to Ottoman harems. Honestly this entire thread is so retarded, someone should hit you for it!

No, I don't think slaves were only female. Slavic slaves were imported to work that land in the Byzantine and Ottoman empire. Of course they can reproduce .

[Stefan_Dusan]

I thought you said that R1a was Slavic? Why would you say that the Slavic migrations brought I2a, but that Slavic slavery did not?

Because the slavic migrations were not a representative of Ukraine as a whole. In fact Serbian migrations (the carriers of I2a2b) came as a tribe. I.e they all had the same progenitor. Meaning they all had the same male haplogroup. It just so happened this haplogroup was I2a2b (a 15% chance given Ukrainian haplogroups) but they then dominated the other slavs.

Croats for example are about 50-50 R1a and I2a2b. Anything below Croatia becomes Serbian land until Bulgaria.

[blogen]

So what was the Y-Haplogroup of all the Slavic slaves who were imported to Byzantine and Ottoman lands? They didn't just disappear.

The R1 linages.

Also, I2a Dinaric-South is was argued to be too young not to be the results of a sudden recent expansion:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theorie...igin_of_Croats

The Croats and Serbs were Slavonic invaders in the Balkan. Maybe their elite were Iranian origin, but genetically this was not too big difference.

[JQP4545]

Because the slavic migrations were not a representative of Ukraine as a whole. In fact Serbian migrations (the carriers of I2a2b) came as a tribe. I.e they all had the same progenitor. Meaning they all had the same male haplogroup. It just so happened this haplogroup was I2a2b (a 15% chance given Ukrainian haplogroups) but they then dominated the other slavs.

Croats for example are about 50-50 R1a and I2a2b. Anything below Croatia becomes Serbian land until Bulgaria.

I could easily adjust the thread title to, "Did R1a and I2a come to Greece from the imporation of Slavic slaves?" The point is still the same. Many slaves came to this region of the world and didn't just disappear.

[Stefan_Dusan]

I could easily adjust the thread title to, "Did R1a and I2a come to Greece from the imporation of Slavic slaves?" The point is still the same. Many slaves came to this region of the world and didn't just disappear.

You can but you'd be very wrong because the ratios of R1a and I2a don't support your theory.

[Stefan_Dusan]

Clar ...in Greece and in Albania , not illusions, the albanians with I2a have slavic ancestry...

In the very distant past. Maybe even 1500 years in the past they had at least one ancestor (their progenitor) was slavic. Kurt is an example, but overall he probably has minuscule slavic blood in him.

[JQP4545]

You can but you'd be very wrong because the ratios of R1a and I2a don't support your theory.

So which Slavic group brought I2a Dinaric-North to Greece?

[Stefan_Dusan]

So which Slavic group brought I2a Dinaric-North to Greece?

Serbs.

[JQP4545]

Serbs.

Lol, I already said Serbs are Dinaric South! Greeks are generally Dinaric North (Ukraine, Poland, etc).