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Thread: Iron Age and Early Medieval Polish DNA coming soon

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    Quote Originally Posted by Feiichy View Post
    how do you explain their different autosomal make up
    That could be genetic drift. Maybe they belonged to several distinct, isolated tribes.

    Later those tribes mixed with each other, creating a more homogeneous population.

    Quote Originally Posted by XenophobicPrussian View Post
    That high amount of West Asian and no East Med is simply a result of low coverage..
    Why do you think so, why exactly should (or must) Early Slavs have any East Med?
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    Quote Originally Posted by Dick View Post





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    It isn't strange if early Slavs completely lacked east med, but the fact that modern Poles score some of it, where does it comes from ?
    In case of south slavs it's easy- we mixed with indigenious Illyrian-Thracian tribes, but in case of ''northern'' Slavs it seems to be a mystery.

    As well as west asian scores reducing significantly in modern Polish population.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Litvin;4500017.
    Why do you think so, why exactly should (or must) Early Slavs have any East Med?
    According to Maciamo the original slavs must have had traces of J2 and E1b as it's present in small amounts in all modern Slavic populations. I would also expect them to have traces of east med.
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    Quote Originally Posted by Litvin View Post
    That could be genetic drift. Maybe they belonged to several distinct, isolated tribes.

    Later those tribes mixed with each other, creating a more homogeneous population.



    Why do you think so, why exactly should (or must) Early Slavs have any East Med?
    because every single population in Europe except Finnish Sami have it(even Finns/Estonians). It was in Bell Beakers, the highest coverage Anglo-Saxons/Britons, in all neolithic farmers(although if you don't have atleast a 2:1 West Med to East Med ratio you likely have post-neolithic MENA ancestry). You can't be admixed with neolithic farmers if you don't have East Med(of course, there are samples known to have neolithic farmer admixture without East Med, but again this is due to low SNP coverage).

    Also no, I'm not accepting K36 to be superiour. The PCA has too many errors(S. Dutch too far northern, SW Finnish too far eastern, Volga-Uralic groups and Tatars way close too Slavs, only thing the K36 PCA seems to get right over K15 is the position of Austria, but K13 also gets Austria correct) and the admixture results don't even show how much Middle-Eastern someone has because it's hidden in the "Italian" or w/e component. The component maps you made also seem to be all over the place.
    The Guanche skulls as a whole are unlike those of modern European Mediterraneans, and resemble northern European series most closely, especially those in which a brachycephalic element is present, as in Burgundian and Alemanni series.
    divided them into clearly differentiated types, which include a Mediterranean, a Nordic, a "Guanche," and an Alpine. The "Guanche" accounts for 50 per cent of the whole on the four islands of Teneriffe, Gomera, Gran Canaria, and Hierro; the Nordic for 31 per cent, the Mediterranean for 13 per cent, and the Alpine
    oldschool anthropology

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    Quote Originally Posted by XenophobicPrussian View Post
    The PCA has too many errors
    They are not errors, just imperfections of a two-dimensional PCA.

    Only three-dimensional PCAs can accurately show all of variation.

    Quote Originally Posted by XenophobicPrussian View Post
    because every single population in Europe except Finnish Sami have it
    In Eurogenes K36, East_Med admixture is much less widespread.

    Quote Originally Posted by Feiichy View Post
    It isn't strange if early Slavs completely lacked east med, but the fact that modern Poles score some of it, where does it comes from ?
    These samples are dated to 600 AD - 1200 AD, maybe at that time mixing between Slavs and Pre-Slavic inhabitants was still not completed, and therefore people with very different genetic backgrounds will be found (some with much more Slavic ancestry, others with much more Pre-Slavic ancestry).

    Another issue is that these are "screening results", which is why they are low coverage.

    The actual paper will be published soon, and it will include better quality genomes. So maybe when we upload to GEDmatch these higher coverage genomes (of the same people), their results will be slightly different. We will see. But low coverage does not mean that the results must be wrong.
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    Crimean Goths were I1-M253 as well (just like Wielbark):

    http://www.forumbiodiversity.com/sho...=1#post1304256

    (...) Our project tested two people who are descendants of the Crimean Goths, this kit № 228539 Afenko and kit № 228541 Aslanov. Their haplogroup (I1-M253) was determined in the course of scientific research laboratory Balanovsky. (...)
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    Quote Originally Posted by Feiichy View Post
    As well as west asian scores reducing significantly in modern Polish population.
    Jews. In Xth century they were not here. In XXth
    century they were 11% in population Poles+Jews.

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    Quote Originally Posted by karol.klacansky View Post
    According to Maciamo...
    ...many his claims were debunked, and he had to rewtite his
    stories and repainted maps... sometimes trice or four times.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Sir Rethel of Retheley View Post
    ...many his claims were debunked, and he had to rewtite his
    stories and repainted maps... sometimes trice or four times.
    Yes I don't always agree with Maciamo on everything , but still the fact that east med type haplogroups are present in all Slavic populations, I would expect them to also have some East med admixture
    “Cool Story bro”
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