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Allow me to think that Greek Islanders and Mainlanders have more in common than Jews and Sicilians
Other than similar genetics they have common language,religion,culture,foods,history and ethnic identity as both were Greeks or Hellenic at least since the times of Homer.
Also history of Greek Islands and Mainland is closely interwoven from Ancient times throughout Byzantine till times of the revolutions and uprisings against the Ottoman empire


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Do I have to show you again?
E-V13 peaks in Albania and northern parts of Greece, thus I am suggesting it is related to Illyrians and maybe possibly Thracians. I never said it is related Slavs, but even Slavs (e.g. Ukrainians) have more E-V13 than Cretans, Dodecanese islanders and even southern Italians!
Also, where is your proof that Dorians came from the steppe? This is another conspiracy theory with zero evidence. Not to mention, the most common haplogroup amongst southern Pelapponese (for example, Maniots), is again J2! Are you saying that Maniots are not the closest thing we have to a Doric people?
Also, your racism is pretty apparent every single post you make. You claimed earlier I am an assimilated Levantine, and keep making random stuff about Cretans and Dodecanese being extremely Levantine while you claim Greeks from antiquity came mostly from the steppe, which is absolutely false. Just like Indo-European Anatolians, Indo-European Greeks had hardly any steppe admixture! If you have any evidence this was the case, show it, but you can't because no such evidence exists!


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Ok you are officially insane, right
Dorians and illyrians like all indoeuropeans came FROM UKRAINIAN STEPPES, and ALL linguists accept this theory and user fiechy had posted a study which proved that r1b and r1a were the only indoeuropean haplgroups in steppes, now if you see cpnsiparcy theories behind these facts like any scientist gives a f*ck about a dodecanese ta user it's your problem. Not to mention that northern Greece is dominated by r1a and most of south r1b not ev13, the latter is most common in central Greece
Regardless from being illyrians Greeks Iberians italics etc all indoeuropeans assimilated people with ev13 and j2 to different proportions depending upon how much of each haplogroup existed in an area before their invasions, and like you said DUMB only dodecanese has that low ev13, meanwhile other islands with equally zero contacts with slavs and zero recent mainland immigrations like lesbos naxos etc have higher ev13, which automatically debunks your already clueless by studies theories.
Yes mainland has slavic admixture but that is depicted on their difference with Cyclades, Ionian islands and north aegean in terms of northeast European autosomal components and higher slavic r1a than them, not in the difference with the already extra levantine mixed Rhodes due to extra geographical distance with mainland
Last edited by brennus dux gallorum; 05-10-2020 at 10:11 AM.


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You must be confusing the origin of language with genetic admixture. It really doesn't matter if Indo-European languages originated in the steppe, what matters is the impact they made to genetics (not as much as you keep saying), and that's why you're talking conspiracy theories. You also have no proof about Dodecanese always having 'extra levantine', firstly it would be extra Anatolian, secondly we had migrations from south west Anatolia so the admixture is not 100% the same as before. In fact, some of my distant relatives came from Anatolia, as you saw listed in my ancestry. So, you have no idea what you're talking about, because it doesn't matter if Slavs never went to islands, mainlanders who had already mixed did, it doesn't need to be through major migrations, any time a mainlander moved to an island he brought over extra steppe admixture. Over time, this can lead to the increase of steppe in all islands, no island is so disconnected that it recieved zero migration!
Lastly, there is a simple reason 23andme/AncestryDNA cannot tell the difference between Rhodians and southern Italians (both of us get ITALIAN on AncestryDNA and 23andme) and there is a simple reason mainlanders get BALKAN. According to the website, southern Italians share a rich genetic history with Greek islanders, meanwhile Greek mainlanders share genetic history with Balkans. But, these websites only look at last 500 years, as you know, so please mr. smarty tell me what this means?![]()


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Completely clueless, as always
The people who brought indoeuropean language to Greece were r1b and r1a, the people they assimilated were the neolithic farmers (j and e and i), logic says that the more south these indoeuropeans travelled the more neolithics and other natives they assimilated, until they arrived in the BOTTOM of their colonies which is Rhodes
23andme is a company, in myheritage on the other hand which as a company is even more popular Greek mainland is grouped with ITALY, NOT BALKANS, but even if we go by 23andme Cyclades and north Aegean are also BALKAN with extra southern Italian imput, meanwhile Ionian islands which were equally never affected by Slavs score almost as Balkan as mainland does. And at least Cyclades and north Aegean islands do not have any common genetic history with mainland, not in the last 500 but in the last 2500 years, except if for the first time you will being some evidence that these islands were really colonized by recent mainlanders instead of talking out of your a**
You keep putting all islanders into the same basket with Rhodes and kalymnos, if you knew a sit Sicily was a major colony of phoenecias
Last edited by brennus dux gallorum; 05-10-2020 at 10:52 AM.


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Clearly they do, as they would not score BALKAN if they were disconnected since 600 AD. Also, I get matches from many different islands, so you don't know what you're talking about. Chios has even more west Asian than Dodecanese, but at same time score low Italian compared to Dodecanese. It's pretty clear to me ITALIAN score on 23andme/AncestryDNA is related to J2, while BALKAN score on 23andme is related to E-V13, as I see this pattern in all my matches. Now I do not understand why you can't understand how admixture can change in 1400 years, but if you believe that nothing has changed, I will just have to wait for ancient samples from correct time periods to shut you up.


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Greek language wasn't brought to Greece but was created or developed in Greece itself(and the Aegean)
I support Colin Renfrew and his theory an this matter
The oldest Greek language was Mycanaean,Mycanaeans had some Steppe ancestry but only a little it was a minority of their ancestry not
the main source
The more North the Greeks traveled the more Non Greek Northern Barbarian people they assimilated
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