Origin of I2-din. Slavic, Paleo-Balkan or?

[Bosniensis]

Slavs as a term appeared in 7th century.

They aren't even a civilization.

Russians are mix of Germanics, Turkics, Finnic, Caucasian and Baltic peoples..... and I2 Celtic/Balkanic.

[PaleoEuropean]

Who the fuck are you to call my people natives, when we are largerly of Slavic invader origin proven by history and genetics and subjugated those inferior wog tribes.

Thank God I look nothing like balkan natives either.

Leave us alone. I don't need to prove who we are to every white trash hillybilly every second day.

You are a native get over yourself Stears, you don't look like a Slav or a German, you look like a Serbian War criminal.

[catgeorge]

Yes, it does. Fremch sample is ethnic German from Alsace.

Huh - no such thing as ethnic French nor ethnic German back then... the closest explanation you can get it was a proto-Celtic migration east.

[PaleoEuropean]

I reported you for claiming I am Stears, fat ass. Enjoy your incoming ban.

You are obviously Stears, which is pretty sad you are willing to take advantage of your women to make petty quarrels over the internet. You can report me all you like, how many times has Loki had to ban Feiichy's account because you wanna throw temper tantrums online? It's childish.

[Leto]

Russians are mix of Germanics, Turkics, Finnic, Caucasian and Baltic peoples..... and I2 Celtic/Balkanic.

Not true. The Germanic influence is close to non-existent. Turkic is also very small or none at all. And Caucasians were annexed ca. 200 years ago and have never mixed on a large scale since they're mountaineer hostile Muslim tribes and very different from Slavic Russians.

[Jana]

Huh - no such thing as ethnic French nor ethnic German back then... the closest explanation you can get it was a proto-Celtic migration east.

Yes, I2 din most likely has deep Celtic origin, but it took part in Slavic ethnogenesis and migrated to Balkans as fully Slavic.

Balkan Celts are unrelated to that and were mostly G2a.

[catgeorge]

Yes, I2 din most likely has deep Celtic origin, but it took part in Slavic ethnogenesis and migrated to Balkans as fully Slavic.

Balkan Celts are unrelated to that and were mostly G2a.

It mutated over time.... the language was taken from Baltids/Polish.

Language is passed on from mother to child not father to child.

Its a native European mutation no matter how one looks at it.

[Dušan]

I2 ranges from 5% in Northern Russians to 15% in Southern Russians. Approximately of course.

Yes. Southern Russians are closest to proto-Slavs, while northern Russians are mixed to some degree with Finnic people.

[PaleoEuropean]

Several days ago, a lady stated a legendary thread and said "The ones who think I2-din is not Slavic, can you please fuck off from this haplogroup." but unfortunately the thread has been deleted. So, my question is what do you think about the origin of I2-din? I think it is of Slavic origin but I have no idea how it is 15-20% in Mesopotamia.

I2 isn't found at 15% in Mesopotamia but it's found in high concentration due to several factors 1. The Ottoman's protectorates and subjects moved around 2. I2 was a part of Indo-Aryan confederations such as Scythians. 3. Genetic diffusion, which is a natural process of migration. Another factor is the diaspora of Spanish and Portuguese Jews which carried more I2 and R1b than normal.

[Bosniensis]

Yes. Southern Russians are closest to proto-Slavs, while northern Russians are mixed to some degree with Finnic people.

Nations are made of blood tribes. Nations as in modern sense exist only for few hundred years.

To belong to a nation in Iron Age, you must have been blood related or in our language = Same Haplogroup.

There is no chance that in Iron Age I2 and R1a were from a same brotherhood one being Indo European other being Proto European.