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What about the Ruhrpolen (who came from all of eastern provinces)? There were over 450,000 of them in 1910 (and probably already some were assimilated by that time, while others continued coming later). Add also Lithuanians & Masurians from East Prussia, Wends from eastern Pommern.








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Errrr ... what?I've just mentioned the reality of Soviet Russia which is true. Where do you see any Russophobia? Russians killed or starved to death directly or indirectly way more Russian citizens than Germans did. It is you who distorted my message trying to overwrite your own interpretation.
Such (political) convictions set the stage for decades of murder on an industrial scale. In total, no fewer than 20 million Soviet citizens were put to death by the regime or died as a direct result of its repressive policies
Last edited by Roy; 12-29-2021 at 11:35 PM.








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Left beside the cause for the German term Vaterland, why do you consider that the relationship would be mostly paternally? It would make sense as migrations regularly are more carried out by men than by women and there was an expansion of Germanics within later German people emergence area. But do you have facts that support that, f. i. that there is a bigger commonality in Y DNA than in mtDNA among Germans compared to among Englishmen?
Target: rothaer_scaled
Distance: 1.0091% / 0.01009085
39.8 (Balto-)Slavic
39.0 Germanic
19.2 Celtic-like
1.8 Graeco-Roman
0.2 Finnic-like





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Not really, because the 'Australian nation' includes people of many different ethnicities/origins, and not even the ethnic core of British/Irish descended people is what I would consider a true nation , for the same reason I don't consider British in the UK a proper nation.
OK, we just have a different view on nationhood then. Fair enough. I call these existing countries nations anyway, just of different categories.





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Soviet is not the same thing as Russian. Most of the victims were Russians/Slavs themselves. The communist elite before WW2 had a lot of non-Russians (vastly overrepresented). Including some Poles for that matter. But mostly other groups.
That original post of mine was about WW2 specifically. Not about the 20th century in general.




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Depends on times. There is no such rule IMO.
In ancient times entire tribes usually migrated. When the Cimbri and Teutones invaded Rome, it was a huge hord with 50% men 50% women (but the latter mostly stayed behind rather, maybe only some took part in battle - of course later they were slaughtered anyway by victorious legions).
I don't know if your "regularly" even applies to modern times. F.i. English settlement in North America was gender-balanced.








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I don't have comparative stats at hand, forgive me, and I wasn't referring specifically to haplogroups, but it's fairly logical to say that when you compare Germany to England - in England just as in Germany you have a majority Germanic paternal ancestry, but among all Englishmen the maternal ancestry is overwhelmingly from the same native Celtic Britons. In Germany the maternal ancestry will vary from mostly Germanic in the Northwest, mostly Celtic in the Southwest, and mostly Slavic in the East. I could be wrong but that's what it seems to be, and that's reflected in the autosomal differences. With regards to Great Britain as a whole, as opposed to Germany, the main thing that links English, Welsh and Scottish, and the British abroad, is their common Brittonic maternal origins, while Germans are linked by their common paternal origins. So you could make an argument that's why Britishness is associated maternally (mother country), and personified with the female Britannia. As an aside the Australian national anthem (long version) refers to England as Fatherland, in contrast to how Australians commonly call Britain the mother country. The Welsh national anthem is also 'Land of My Fathers'.
Last edited by J. Ketch; 12-30-2021 at 01:33 AM.
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