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That doesnt really makes sense. In the medieval age, everyone had class identity, the nobles did not give a fuck about the peasants language.
Actually avars had pretty different paternal origin. It was not so similar to conquerors. The early avars were almost completely mongoloid, unlike magyars who were mostly turanid, europid-mongoloid mixed. I dont see much similarity between avars and magyars, except the nomad culture. They were not same for sure.
These are obviously hungarus graves. The most possible theory is the wars with franks and others significantly reduced the avar population in Alföld. The migration of magyars happened betwwen 7-9. century in many smaller or bigger waves to these areas and they became the hungarus folk (commoners) what Anonymus describes. These hungarus were mix of slavs, magyars and slavo-avars, and they spoked hungarian in general. But of course is just a theory.
Actually its not really possible. First of all there were tribes who had turkic ethnic origin like kabars, their native language was turkic for sure, but in the case of other tribes? I dont think that, otherwise the ugric hungarian language would have disappeared. At this time almost every single east european steppe nomads were turkic speaker, so the turic language was more widespread. If nomad magyars were really bilingual and also native turkic speakers then it makes no sense to choose the rare ugric language instead of the more popular turkic. The only reason why the unique hungarian language was able to survive in the steppe is the 7 tribe were native hungarian speaker for sure, and they used the turkic as just lingua franca in the steppe like english today. After the colonization of Carpathian Basin there is no any source that magyars used any turkic language. The elite used latin, and even the turkic tribes like kabars have started to speak hungarian.
With bulgars? Bulgars migrated to the eastern part of Balkans and they established Bulgaria. Later Bulgaria conquered Transylvania and southern part of Alföld, so some bulgarian maybe migrated to Carpathian Basin at this time but their number was not significant for sure. For example Transylvania had most likely vlach majority, and Alföld had hungarus majority.
Btw its almost 100% possible that first magyars visited the Carpathian Basin in the 4. century along with huns. The hun-magyar mixing/relations in the South Ural is well documented. When huns migrated across Eurasia they gathered other steppe nomads including magyars too and they became part of these diverse hunnic tribes. This is how the whole hun-magyar kinship has started. After the defeat of huns, vast majority of them migrated back to East Europe, but maybe some small hunnic groups remained in the Carpathian Basis, you can read this in the origin myth of székelys too.
To be honest its very possible if the nomad elite knew how to organize a state. If you look at East Europe at this time, you can see bulgar, khazar and magyar elite all claimed that they are sons of Attila and his empire. The state organization of these nomads is most likey hunnic and the Hun Empire was the idol. When Árpád arrived in the Carpathian Basin he conquered this land in the name of Attila. He said we just take back this country and Attila was the legitimization. After Hungary adopted western christianity and latin things, the Árpáds still insisted to Attila and his heritage although the "dog headed" huns were very unpopular in West.
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